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Lord's day, and yet not the Sabbath. Would the bare mention of this day by the Apostle John, even if it were certain that he referred to the first day of the week, repeal or alter the fourth commandment? Certainly not. But you ask, What day did he mean? I reply, Most probably he meant the seventh, since we know from several scriptures that this _is in fact the Lord's day_. See Nehemiah 9:14, and Isaiah 58:13. But you ask again, Why did he not say
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if he meant it? I reply by asking you, Why did he not say
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Lord of the Sabbath, you have no hesitation in affirming that the first day of the week is the very Sabbath day spoken of in the fourth commandment, and that the seventh day of the week is not _now_ more holy than any other; or, in other words, that the blessing which God put upon it in the beginning, (Gen. 2:21,) has been taken from it, and given to another day. What! because
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therefore the seventh day _must_ have ceased to be the Sabbath! Because
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in
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therefore the seventh day _must_ have ceased to be holy! Because Christ showed himself to his disciples once or twice on the first day of the week, therefore the seventh day _cannot_ be the Sabbath! Because the Pentecostal effusion of the Holy Ghost happened on the first day of the week, as is clearly demonstrated by arithmetical calculation, therefore the seventh day _cannot_ claim to be the Sabbath! Because the disciples met _once_
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on the first day of the week, therefore God _must_ have unsanctified the seventh day! Because the Corinthian and Galatian Christians were commanded to
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on the first day of the week, for the relief of the poor saints, therefore the seventh day _can be nothing more_ than a working day! Because John was
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therefore the seventh day _cannot_ be
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as it used to be! Because Jesus Christ is
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Lord of the Sabbath,