text:
Are aircraft tyre sizes standardised?
Are tyres custom designed for each new aircraft model or is there a lot of standardization & cross use across models? When a designer starts on a new model is there a list of standard tire sizes to choose from?
Is the situation similar for general aviation / military aircraft?

Aircraft tires are indeed standardized by size and specification and with applications across models.
There is certainly a long list of available sizes and variations, just as with automotive tires. When needed for a new aircraft type design, these existing tire models are available to be incorporated into that design.
There are certainly many aircraft types that have necessitated special tire specifications through the history of aviation development, especially with the more esoteric military aircraft. Of course, this is how that extensive list of available tires came to be.

Aircraft tires are dimensioned by several measurements (as depicted in the images below):

Outside Diameter (A),
Cross Sectional Width (B),
and Inner (Rim) Diameter (C).

These dimensions will be noted as AxB-C. In some cases the A is left out for a B-C notation (see examples in the table of "Type III Nylon Tube Type Tires" below).

Image Source

Image Source

Air Hawk tires are one brand that I handle frequently; their tire products give a good representation of the generic sizes and specifications available. Follow the above link for examples from their online catalog.
See also this excerpt from their Aircraft Tires Specifications sheet showing examples of common dimensions and plys:

Goodyear has an exhaustive databook covering technical specifications for their commercial and military aircraft tires.
See that here: The Aircraft Tire DataBook

Specific data on the proper tire sizes for different aircraft main and
  auxiliary/nose gear, speed ratings, nominal inflation pressures,
  dimensions, and other data needed by users to obtain the maximum
  service from their aircraft tires are presented in this booklet.

So, do the manufacturer's have to get separate approval for each tyre model they make from FAA?

As I understand it, no, they don't necessarily need a PMA. Complying with a TSO can be sufficient; in this case FAA TSO 62.

Is there ever a chance of accidentally putting the "wrong" tyre on? Or does the shape / hub connectors etc. prevent that?

Yes, the mechanic or operator might mistakenly install a tire that was either the wrong size or otherwise not approved. Generally speaking there might be multiple tires that would fit on one rim, but would be otherwise excessively large or small in one or more dimensions, or would have a ply, weight, or pressure rating different than called for.

@curious_cat For example, a Goodyear 606C46-6 is an appropriate tire for a C172M main gear assembly, with a nominal outside diameter of 17". Theoretically, a Goodyear 706C61-4 would fit on the same rim (6.00-6), but would have a nominal outside diameter of 18.5". Since the inflation and load ratings for the later tire exceed the ratings for the former, there might not be any problem with load bearing performance, but the outside diameter would differ by 1.5" or more, if properly inflated.


text:
Which evacuation incidents were followed by a large fire?
Are there statistics about how many Aircraft emergency evacuation incidents (land-based) in the recent past (say, last 10 years) actually were followed by significant fires?
By "significant" I mean fires large enough to spread to the passenger cabins in spite of fire fighting attempts & which may conceivably have led to fatalities had passengers still been on board.
The context of what I am asking is: Are we doing a good job balancing the upside & downside risks of an Evac? Keeping in mind that most some Evacs can come with serious injuries to passengers.

On one hand the crews have the obligation to protect the aircraft occupants, and are aware of a problem, on the other hand they can't know for sure the safety status of the aircraft (excluding cases where they know there is already a fire, or the cabin atmosphere is hazardous). What can they do to prevent trials, injuries, or casualties, if not evacuating the aircraft? Whether this was necessary will be known only after the decision.

@mins I'm not faulting the crews. I am only interested in a post hoc analysis of the outcomes we have seen in practice. The "after the decision" part. i.e. The ratio of necessary to unnecessary evacs in hindsight.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_France_Flight_358

I doubt there is a worldwide statistics.
The accidents, where actual fire broke and did cause significant damage will be well known and listed on the aviation safety network. However the precautionary evacuations that turned out to be false alarms and when nobody was seriously injured may fall through the cracks and not get reported anywhere. They should be reported to the overseeing safety board and that usually publishes at least summary list, but the system works better in some countries and less in other [1]. And there is no central store for these reports in either case, so you could try to collect the numbers for one country (according to [1], the reports are probably most complete for Canada), but that will be too few cases for decent statistics and worldwide data will be incomplete to the point of being useless.
However, I am pretty sure the balancing is right. Not only do fires happen, but when they do, they are fast. The China Airlines flight 120 at Okinawa on Aug. 20th 2007 burnt down in about 5 minutes. The first explosion occurred just few seconds after the last passenger left the plane and while the flight crew was evacuating. So if they waited any longer, it is quite likely someone would have died.
In contrast most evacuations don't result in injuries and the few cases are mostly bruises, some sprained ankles and if someone has really bad luck, some broken leg or hand.
The broken bones (and not sure, but I think even the sprained ankles) count as serious injuries. So that's the options the captain is comparing. If they command evacuation, somebody might break a leg, but if they don't and the fire is real, somebody will die. And they must decide in couple of seconds for the evacuation to be successful. So they would obviously err on the side of caution and command the evacuation if they have a good reason to think there might be a fire.

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text:
Who activates the fasten seat belt warning on commercial flights?
Who activates (and de-activates) the "fasten seat belt" warning on commercial flights? I would guess it is either the pilot in command (normally the captain) or the first officer (co-pilot).
If the answer is airline specific, then answer for American Airlines.

It's P1's decision, and P2's hand that moves the switch.
But, there's a really nice position of the switch, "Auto", which switches them on/off automatically based on some rules (which are usually passing through 10,000ft). Using the "Auto" position means that you can't forget them!

Yeah, well they forgot to turn it off on my last flight after we landed, so there is a problem with the "rules".

@Tyler Durden, how long did people remain in their seats after reaching the gate?

@MichaelHall how long do people remain in their seats after touching down??? ;)

Depending to the Standard Operating Procedures of each airline, the Pilot Flying or the Pilot in Command will switch on the Fasten Seatbelts Sign, on takeoff, landing and when required mid-flight at their own discretion. Sometimes, the switch can be set to 'Auto' -if applicable-, which turns the Fasten Seatbelts sign off, once the flaps are set to the position 0 (Boeing Aircraft).

I believe it's the pilot monitoring...

Welcome to aviation.SE. I'm sorry, but "I believe" do not constitute a good answer around here. Do you happen to have any sources that could help you expand your answer?

Thanks @Federico - I thought it might be a bit light... I'll go source it. But my knowledge is based on what I have seen happen - I said 'Believe' as different companies will have different procedures. I'll try get better info and edit.

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text:
What does the suction gauge actually show?
If I recall correctly correctly the vacuum suction gauge in the TB10 has a scale from 3 to 6, with the green range being 4 to 5 (I might slightly off on those numbers though).
It's clearly marked as showing inHg, but unlike the manifold gauge it's on the lower stop when the engine isn't running (rather than the upper stop if, as the manifold gauge, trying to reach ambient pressure). I haven't really paid attention to it's behavior in the aircraft (only checking that it's in the green), and I just looked at it in Xplane right now which might be wrong of course.
Is it showing the negative difference to ambient pressure? Or the difference in pressure before and after the vacuum pump (which may or may not be the same thing)? Or something else completely? :)

According to the diagram below from a TB200 pilots manual the gauge shows the difference between vacuum line and the ambient pressure:

The pressure difference between the ambient and the vacuum line drives the airflow which spins the gyros in you instruments. In the Socata design, there is an implicit assumption that the air filter is not blocked. If the filter would be blocked, the suction gauge would probably exceed the green area unless the vacuum relief valve opens before the red is reached.
If your vacuum pump stops working, the dial will fall to its lower stop. If the air filter is blocked, and both the vacuum pump and the vacuum relief valve working properly, the dial should exceed 5 inHg.

Other designs are a bit more fault tolerant in the sense that they do not make any assumptions on the working of the filter or the relief valve. In the examples below (thanks to voretaq7) the suction gauge indicates the pressure difference over the instrument itself, which is a more robust presentation of how the system is performing.

How does the diagram tell you it's the difference to ambient pressure?

@falstro There is no other reference pressure around the Vacuum Gage than the ambient pressure, so the only difference it can measure is from ambient pressure. If it would measure the difference over the vacuum pump, it would need access to the the vent line.

The manifold pressure gauge shows absolute pressure, couldn't this one be similar?

@falstro It could be designed that way, but that would be useless. What you are interested in is the difference between ambient pressure and the pressure in the vacuum line since that is what drives your instruments. Displaying the absolute pressure value in the vacuum line has little use, unless you know what the ambient pressure is and then you have to do the math yourself which is pretty error prone.

The suction (or pressure) gauge is always a differential pressure (from the "low" side of the instruments to the "high" side) because what spins the gyro is the air rushing from the low pressure side to the high pressure side.  They can be plumbed in different ways: often they're in series with the attitude indicator
(or less commonly the heading gyro), and sometimes they have their own dedicated vacuum line.

@voretaq7 that diagram is a lot better and the explanation (i.e. pressure difference over the instrument) makes more sense to me, put that in an answer will you? :)

@falstro That diagram is not the system as it is in the TB10. I agree that it is a better solution than the diagram included in my post, but you specifically asked for the TB10.

@DeltaLima oh, my bad, sorry for that, I only mentioned the TB10, because that's the only airplane I've seen with a suction gauge IRL.

@voretaq7 I've included the diagrams in my answer. Feel free to copy them out if you want to create you own answer.

@falstro No worries, I've updated the answer.


text:
What repairs or modifications can be done without approval/certification?
I realize that this is likely to depend on jurisdiction (EASA or FAA would interest me the most in that case), but is there any common-sense kind of line that you don't cross until you've at least checked that it's okay?
I mean it's obviously okay to put checklists in a side-pocket, and it's obviously not okay to replace the avionics. Can I replace the PTT button on the yoke? Or if I don't touch the wiring and simply add some plastic on top give it a better feel?

should perhaps split this into two questions for each respective governing body :)

@manfred im guessing the answer would be the same?

New seat covers and an air freshener :)

this is very broad, and likely depend on the plane/model itself

Well, under certain circumstances you can indeed replace the avionics!!!  See item 31 in the list of preventive maintenance that the plane's owner is permitted to do (listed below).

This answer applies to FAA certified aircraft.  For experimentals, there are really no restrictions.  I mean, you can build the airplane from scratch so replace what you want...  but for certified aircraft:
The following is copied and pasted from the AOPA website:
FAR Part 43 specifies who may do what to an aircraft in the way of maintenance, repair or alteration. It requires that only properly certified mechanics work on aircraft and "okay" them for return to service. However, it does allow preventive maintenance to be performed by a certificated pilot, holding at least a Private certificate, on an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot, provided the aircraft is not used in commercial service. The responsibilities for a pilot performing preventive maintenance are very similar to those imposed on the certificated mechanic performing other duties. The FARs require that anyone who works on an aircraft must have the appropriate maintenance and service information available. This means quite simply that before you set about performing preventive maintenance items on your airplane, you must first have the proper maintenance manuals available.
A list of "preventive maintenance" allowed is specifically listed in FAR 43 appendix A (4) c and is copied below:

Preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the
  following work, provided it does not involve complex assembly
  operations:
(1) Removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires.
(2) Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear.
(3) Servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both.
(4) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and
  greasing.
(5) Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys.
(6) Lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of
  nonstructural items such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings.
(7) Making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the
  removal of structural parts or control surfaces. In the case of
  balloons, the making of small fabric repairs to envelopes (as defined
  in, and in accordance with, the balloon manufacturers' instructions)
  not requiring load tape repair or replacement.
(8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir.
(9) Refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, balloon baskets, wings
  tail group surfaces (excluding balanced control surfaces), fairings,
  cowlings, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit interior when removal or
  disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is not
  required.
(10) Applying preservative or protective material to components where
  no disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is
  involved and where such coating is not prohibited or is not contrary
  to good practices.
(11) Repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin,
  cockpit, or balloon basket interior when the repairing does not
  require disassembly of any primary structure or operating system or
  interfere with an operating system or affect the primary structure of
  the aircraft.
(12) Making small simple repairs to fairings, nonstructural cover
  plates, cowlings, and small patches and reinforcements not changing
  the contour so as to interfere with proper air flow.
(13) Replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with
  the structure or any operating system such as controls, electrical
  equipment, etc.
(14) Replacing safety belts.
(15) Replacing seats or seat parts with replacement parts approved for
  the aircraft, not involving disassembly of any primary structure or
  operating system.
(16) Trouble shooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light
  wiring circuits.
(17) Replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing
  lights.
(18) Replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation
  is involved.
(19) Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or
  disconnection of flight controls.
(20) Replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap
  clearance.
(21) Replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections.
(22) Replacing prefabricated fuel lines.
(23) Cleaning or replacing fuel and oil strainers or filter elements.
(24) Replacing and servicing batteries.
(25) Cleaning of balloon burner pilot and main nozzles in accordance
  with the balloon manufacturer's instructions.
(26) Replacement or adjustment of nonstructural standard fasteners
  incidental to operations.
(27) The interchange of balloon baskets and burners on envelopes when
  the basket or burner is designated as interchangeable in the balloon
  type certificate data and the baskets and burners are specifically
  designed for quick removal and installation.
(28) The installations of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the
  diameter of fuel tank filler openings provided the specific device has
  been made a part of the aircraft type certificate data by the aircraft
  manufacturer, the aircraft manufacturer has provided FAA-approved
  instructions for installation of the specific device, and installation
  does not involve the disassembly of the existing tank filler opening.
(29) Removing, checking, and replacing magnetic chip detectors.
(30) The inspection and maintenance tasks prescribed and specifically
  identified as preventive maintenance in a primary category aircraft
  type certificate or supplemental type certificate holder's approved
  special inspection and preventive maintenance program when
  accomplished on a primary category aircraft provided:   (i) They are
  performed by the holder of at least a private pilot certificate issued
  under part 61 who is the registered owner (including co-owners) of the
  affected aircraft and who holds a certificate of competency for the
  affected aircraft (1) issued by a school approved under Sec. 147.21(e)
  of this chapter; (2) issued by the holder of the production
  certificate for that primary category aircraft that has a special
  training program approved under Sec. 21.24 of this subchapter; or (3)
  issued by another entity that has a course approved by the
  Administrator; and   (ii) The inspections and maintenance tasks are
  performed in accordance with instructions contained by the special
  inspection and preventive maintenance program approved as part of the
  aircraft's type design or supplemental type design.
(31) Removing and replacing self-contained, front instrument
  panel-mounted navigation and communication devices that employ
  tray-mounted connectors that connect the unit when the unit is
  installed into the instrument panel, (excluding automatic flight
  control systems, transponders, and microwave frequency distance
  measuring equipment (DME)). The approved unit must be designed to be
  readily and repeatedly removed and replaced, and pertinent
  instructions must be provided. Prior to the unit's intended use, and
  operational check must be performed in accordance with the applicable
  sections of part 91 of this chapter.
(32) Updating self-contained, front instrument panel-mounted Air
  Traffic Control (ATC) navigational software data bases (excluding
  those of automatic flight control systems, transponders, and microwave
  frequency distance measuring equipment (DME)) provided no disassembly
  of the unit is required and pertinent instructions are provided. Prior
  to the unit's intended use, an operational check must be performed in
  accordance with applicable sections of part 91 of this chapter.

"only properly certified mechanics work on aircraft"... what about uncertified mechanics working under the supervision of a properly certified mechanic?

@Kevin42:  From a strictly legal perspective, the situation you cite is simple:  The certified mechanic has done the work because he has supervised the work and is legally responsible for it.  The fact that he didn't physically turn the wrench is not relevant. But this is indeed splitting hairs here.  A lot of repair/maintenance work is done by uncertified persons under the supervision of the A&P certified mechanic.

My answer below is largely geared toward FAA regulations and US-registered aircraft.
Other areas may have different governing regulations (e.g. for Europe it's EC 2042/2003 - Appendix VIII), but there seem to be some commonly-accepted things pilot-owners may do on their aircraft.
Broadly, on certificated aircraft pilot-owners are typically permitted to make minor repairs to aircraft they own and operate non-commercially.  For example you can

Perform an oil change (including oil, filter, and cleaning oil screens)
Replace burned out nav/position/landing lights
Remove / install / replace non-structural fairings where Weight & Balance changes are not needed
Service landing gear (replace shock cords or add oil/air to struts)
Clean & regap (or replace) spark plugs & plug leads
Service/Replace batteries
Change tires (including cleaning and re-packing wheel bearings)
Grease/Lubricate the airframe as prescribed by the manufacturer under "preventative maintenance"

...provided "complex disassembly" is not required to complete the above tasks.
It is also generally accepted that pilots are allowed to add fuel (duh), engine oil (again, duh), water/coolant (for liquid-cooled engines), and to replenish hydraulic fluid in accessible reservoirs that can be serviced without opening the system to air & requiring it to be bled.
The US FARs actually allow a great deal more than that (see Skip's answer which includes the relevant section of the FARs), the replacement of certain types of tray-mounted radios, some fabric repair (on fabric-covered aircraft & balloons), and repainting (with the exception of "balanced control surfaces"), however much of that starts getting into the kind of work where special equipment or facilities would be extremely helpful (if not necessary) to ensure the job is done properly.

There are some exceptions to the above (this is by no means an exhaustive list of exceptions):

EASA regulations are somewhat more restrictive, see the link above to EC 2042/2003.
Canada has an "Owner Maintenance" category of special airworthiness certificates, which allows much less restrictive maintenance (but at this time renders the aircraft "unairworthy" for flights in US airspace). (More info)
US "Light Sport" certificated aircraft owners are eligible for a repairman certificate under FAR 65.107 which lets them perform many tasks that normally require a certificated A&P mechanic, including repairs/maintenance and the required annual "condition inspection".
Experimental Amateur-Built aircraft can be maintained and inspected by the builder-owner (under the assumption that if you're competent enough to build the thing you're qualified to maintain it).

Note that there's even some wiggle room in what you're allowed to do: You're not allowed to install/remove fairings if a weight and balance computation would be required, but at least in the US it's commonly accepted that your mechanic can give you two weight and balance sheets (e.g. "With wheels" & "With skis", or "With wheel pants" & "Without wheel pants"), and you can do the installation/removals and reference the appropriate W&B sheet when you do your preflight computations.


text:
Where to find the aircraft maintenance manual for the Falcon 2000?
How can I find a Falcon 2000 aircraft maintenance  manual (AMM)?

You should be getting this information from the manufacturer.

You can get the latest AMM through the Falcon Interactive Electronic Library by Dassault (FIELD). Contact the manufacturer through their website for pricing and information on how to setup an account.

@user29669 This is one of those situations where if you have to ask strangers on the internet how to do it, you shouldn't be doing it.


text:
Where to obtain a list of active NDB approaches?
Does anyone know where to find a list of active NDB approaches? I can find a list of ones proposed to be eliminated, but I'm having a problem coming across a list of remaining ones.

This list comes from a database query against an ARINC 424 navigation database. The data is available on a subscription basis (for a fee) from the FAA as a raw, computer-readable data file, but it is not human readable, and querying it requires special software not accessible to the typical interested party. I have done the query for you and pasted the results.
Note the database doesn't distinguish between "NDB RWY XX" and "NDB OR GPS RWY XX" so the titles here may not precisely match what you see on the plate.
Time permitting I'll see if I can update the list (and note any changes) using the most up-to-date navigation database. This list is based on an expired (by 2 months or so) database. These approaches are dropping like flies.
02A  NDB RWY 26  (CLANTON, AL)
06FA NDB RWY 09  (JUPITER, FL)
06FA NDB RWY 27  (JUPITER, FL)
0F2  NDB RWY 17  (BOWIE, TX)
0F2  NDB RWY 35  (BOWIE, TX)
0M3  NDB RWY 02  (HOHENWALD, TN)
15F  NDB RWY 18  (HASKELL, TX)
16G  NDB RWY 24  (TIFFIN, OH)
1B1  NDB-A       (HUDSON, NY)
1B9  NDB RWY 32  (MANSFIELD, MA)
1G3  NDB RWY 01  (KENT, OH)
1H8  NDB RWY 04  (CASEY, IL)
1H8  NDB RWY 22  (CASEY, IL)
1J0  NDB-A       (BONIFAY, FL)
1S3  NDB RWY 26  (FORSYTH, MT)
21D  NDB RWY 04  (ST PAUL, MN)
23R  NDB RWY 35  (DEVINE, TX)
28J  NDB RWY 09  (PALATKA, FL)
2A0  NDB RWY 03  (DAYTON, TN)
2B7  NDB RWY 36  (PITTSFIELD, ME)
2F5  NDB RWY 16  (LAMESA, TX)
2F5  NDB RWY 34  (LAMESA, TX)
2G9  NDB RWY 25  (SOMERSET, PA)
2H0  NDB-A       (SHELBYVILLE, IL)
2J5  NDB RWY 17  (MILLEN, GA)
2M2  NDB RWY 17  (LAWRENCEBURG, TN)
2R6  NDB RWY 36  (BUNKIE, LA)
35A  NDB RWY 05  (UNION, SC)
3B4  NDB-B       (ELIOT, ME)
3F3  NDB RWY 18  (MANSFIELD, LA)
3F4  NDB RWY 09  (VIVIAN, LA)
3JC  NDB-B       (JUNCTION CITY, KS)
45R  NDB RWY 13  (KOUNTZE/SILSBEE, TX)
48Y  NDB RWY 33  (PINECREEK, MN)
4A9  NDB-A       (FT PAYNE, AL)
4F2  NDB RWY 35  (CARTHAGE, TX)
4K6  NDB RWY 36  (BLOOMFIELD, IA)
4R7  NDB RWY 16  (EUNICE, LA)
4V8  NDB RWY 01  (WEST DOVER, VT)
53A  NDB RWY 18  (MONTEZUMA, GA)
5R4  NDB RWY 18  (FOLEY, AL)
5R8  NDB RWY 16  (DE QUINCY, LA)
6B6  NDB-A       (STOW, MA)
70J  NDB RWY 13  (CAIRO, GA)
79J  NDB RWY 29  (ANDALUSIA/OPP, AL)
79J  NDB-A       (ANDALUSIA/OPP, AL)
7F3  NDB RWY 35  (CADDO MILLS, TX)
8A0  NDB-A       (ALBERTVILLE, AL)
8B0  NDB-A       (RANGELEY, ME)
8F3  NDB RWY 35  (CROSBYTON, TX)
8G2  NDB RWY 14  (CORRY, PA)
D73  NDB-A       (MONROE, GA)
E30  NDB RWY 35  (BALLINGER, TX)
E38  NDB RWY 19  (ALPINE, TX)
F10  NDB RWY 36  (HENRYETTA, OK)
F17  NDB RWY 17  (CENTER, TX)
F44  NDB RWY 35  (ATHENS, TX)
F46  NDB-A       (ROCKWALL, TX)
F99  NDB RWY 17  (HOLDENVILLE, OK)
I23  NDB RWY 23  (WASHINGTON COURT HOUSE, OH)
I68  NDB-A       (LEBANON, OH)
I69  NDB RWY 22  (BATAVIA, OH)
K34  NDB-D       (GARDNER, KS)
K88  NDB RWY 01  (IOLA, KS)
KAAA NDB RWY 21  (LINCOLN, IL)
KAAF NDB RWY 14  (APALACHICOLA, FL)
KAAF NDB RWY 32  (APALACHICOLA, FL)
KAAS NDB RWY 23  (CAMPBELLSVILLE, KY)
KABI NDB RWY 35R (ABILENE, TX)
KABR NDB RWY 31  (ABERDEEN, SD)
KABY NDB RWY 04  (ALBANY, GA)
KACK NDB RWY 24  (NANTUCKET, MA)
KACP NDB RWY 36  (OAKDALE, LA)
KADF NDB RWY 04  (ARKADELPHIA, AR)
KADG NDB RWY 05  (ADRIAN, MI)
KAFK NDB RWY 15  (NEBRASKA CITY, NE)
KAFK NDB RWY 33  (NEBRASKA CITY, NE)
KAHN NDB RWY 27  (ATHENS, GA)
KAHQ NDB RWY 20  (WAHOO, NE)
KAID NDB RWY 30  (ANDERSON, IN)
KAIK NDB RWY 25  (AIKEN, SC)
KAIT NDB RWY 16  (AITKIN, MN)
KAJR NDB RWY 06  (CORNELIA, GA)
KAKH NDB RWY 03  (GASTONIA, NC)
KAKQ NDB RWY 20  (WAKEFIELD, VA)
KAKR NDB RWY 25  (AKRON, OH)
KALN NDB RWY 17  (ALTON-ST LOUIS, IL)
KALW NDB RWY 20  (WALLA WALLA, WA)
KALX NDB-A       (ALEXANDER CITY, AL)
KAMA NDB RWY 04  (AMARILLO, TX)
KAMT NDB RWY 23  (WEST UNION, OH)
KANB NDB RWY 05  (ANNISTON, AL)
KANQ NDB RWY 05  (ANGOLA, IN)
KAPG NDB RWY 22  (ABERDEEN PROVING GROUNDS, MD)
KAPN NDB RWY 01  (ALPENA, MI)
KAPT NDB RWY 04  (JASPER, TN)
KAQP NDB RWY 13  (APPLETON, MN)
KARM NDB RWY 14  (WHARTON, TX)
KARM NDB RWY 32  (WHARTON, TX)
KARV NDB RWY 28  (MINOCQUA-WOODRUFF, WI)
KASH NDB RWY 14  (NASHUA, NH)
KATA NDB RWY 05  (ATLANTA, TX)
KATS NDB RWY 12  (ARTESIA, NM)
KATS NDB RWY 30  (ARTESIA, NM)
KATY NDB RWY 35  (WATERTOWN, SD)
KAVQ NDB RWY 12  (MARANA, AZ)
KAWG NDB RWY 31  (WASHINGTON, IA)
KAWO NDB RWY 34  (ARLINGTON, WA)
KAXA NDB RWY 12  (ALGONA, IA)
KAZC NDB-A       (COLORADO CITY, AZ)
KAZE NDB RWY 14  (HAZLEHURST, GA)
KAZO NDB RWY 35  (KALAMAZOO, MI)
KBBB NDB RWY 14  (BENSON, MN)
KBBD NDB RWY 17  (BRADY, TX)
KBBP NDB RWY 07  (BENNETTSVILLE, SC)
KBCB NDB-A       (BLACKSBURG, VA)
KBED NDB RWY 29  (BEDFORD, MA)
KBEH NDB RWY 28  (BENTON HARBOR, MI)
KBFK NDB-A       (BUFFALO, OK)
KBFW NDB RWY 25  (SILVER BAY, MN)
KBGF NDB RWY 18  (WINCHESTER, TN)
KBHC NDB RWY 08  (BAXLEY, GA)
KBHK NDB RWY 13  (BAKER, MT)
KBHK NDB RWY 31  (BAKER, MT)
KBIL NDB RWY 10L (BILLINGS, MT)
KBKS NDB RWY 35  (FALFURRIAS, TX)
KBKT NDB-A       (BLACKSTONE, VA)
KBMC NDB-A       (BRIGHAM CITY, UT)
KBOI NDB RWY 10R (BOISE, ID)
KBPP NDB RWY 29  (BOWMAN, ND)
KBQP NDB RWY 34  (BASTROP, LA)
KBRD NDB RWY 23  (BRAINERD, MN)
KBST NDB RWY 15  (BELFAST, ME)
KBTL NDB RWY 23R (BATTLE CREEK, MI)
KBTR NDB RWY 31  (BATON ROUGE, LA)
KBUB NDB RWY 15  (BURWELL, NE)
KBVS NDB RWY 11  (BURLINGTON/MT VERNON, WA)
KBWG NDB RWY 03  (BOWLING GREEN, KY)
KCAV NDB RWY 14  (CLARION, IA)
KCBG NDB RWY 34  (CAMBRIDGE, MN)
KCBK NDB RWY 17  (COLBY, KS)
KCCY NDB RWY 12  (CHARLES CITY, IA)
KCDA NDB RWY 02  (LYNDONVILLE, VT)
KCDR NDB RWY 20  (CHADRON, NE)
KCEU NDB RWY 25  (CLEMSON, SC)
KCFJ NDB RWY 04  (CRAWFORDSVILLE, IN)
KCFV NDB RWY 35  (COFFEYVILLE, KS)
KCGE NDB RWY 34  (CAMBRIDGE, MD)
KCHD NDB RWY 04R (CHANDLER, AZ)
KCHQ NDB RWY 36  (CHARLESTON, MO)
KCII NDB RWY 23  (CHOTEAU, MT)
KCIR NDB RWY 14  (CAIRO, IL)
KCIU NDB RWY 34  (SAULT STE MARIE, MI)
KCJR NDB RWY 04  (CULPEPER, VA)
KCKC NDB RWY 27  (GRAND MARAIS, MN)
KCKF NDB RWY 10  (CORDELE, GA)
KCKI NDB RWY 14  (KINGSTREE, SC)
KCKN NDB RWY 13  (CROOKSTON, MN)
KCMI NDB RWY 32R (CHAMPAIGN-URBANA, IL)
KCMY NDB RWY 29  (SPARTA, WI)
KCNH NDB-A       (CLAREMONT, NH)
KCNI NDB RWY 05  (CANTON, GA)
KCNK NDB-A       (CONCORDIA, KS)
KCNP NDB RWY 30  (CHAPPELL, NE)
KCNW NDB RWY 35R (WACO, TX)
KCOE NDB RWY 06  (COEUR D'ALENE, ID)
KCOQ NDB RWY 17  (CLOQUET, MN)
KCOQ NDB RWY 35  (CLOQUET, MN)
KCOS NDB RWY 35L (COLORADO SPRINGS, CO)
KCPC NDB RWY 06  (WHITEVILLE, NC)
KCQB NDB RWY 35  (CHANDLER, OK)
KCQX NDB-A       (CHATHAM, MA)
KCRS NDB RWY 14  (CORSICANA, TX)
KCRS NDB RWY 32  (CORSICANA, TX)
KCSB NDB RWY 14  (CAMBRIDGE, NE)
KCSB NDB RWY 32  (CAMBRIDGE, NE)
KCSQ NDB RWY 34  (CRESTON, IA)
KCUH NDB RWY 36  (CUSHING, OK)
KCVC NDB RWY 28  (ATLANTA, GA)
KCVO NDB RWY 17  (CORVALLIS, OR)
KCVX NDB RWY 09  (CHARLEVOIX, MI)
KCVX NDB RWY 27  (CHARLEVOIX, MI)
KCWC NDB RWY 35  (WICHITA FALLS, TX)
KCWS NDB-A       (CONWAY, AR)
KCWV NDB RWY 09  (CLAXTON, GA)
KCXO NDB RWY 14  (HOUSTON, TX)
KCXU NDB RWY 08  (CAMILLA, GA)
KCYS NDB RWY 27  (CHEYENNE, WY)
KCYW NDB RWY 35  (CLAY CENTER, KS)
KCZT NDB RWY 31  (CARRIZO SPRINGS, TX)
KDAA NDB RWY 32  (FT BELVOIR, VA)
KDAW NDB RWY 33  (ROCHESTER, NH)
KDAW NDB-B       (ROCHESTER, NH)
KDAY NDB RWY 06R (DAYTON, OH)
KDCM NDB RWY 35  (CHESTER, SC)
KDET NDB RWY 15  (DETROIT, MI)
KDEW NDB-A       (DEER PARK, WA)
KDLC NDB RWY 07  (DILLON, SC)
KDLZ NDB RWY 10  (DELAWARE, OH)
KDMO NDB RWY 18  (SEDALIA, MO)
KDMO NDB RWY 36  (SEDALIA, MO)
KDNL NDB RWY 11  (AUGUSTA, GA)
KDNL NDB RWY DMC (AUGUSTA, GA)
KDNS NDB RWY 30  (DENISON, IA)
KDRI NDB RWY 36  (DE RIDDER, LA)
KDRT NDB RWY 13  (DEL RIO, TX)
KDTO NDB RWY 18  (DENTON, TX)
KDVK NDB-A       (DANVILLE, KY)
KDXX NDB RWY 32  (MADISON, MN)
KDYB NDB RWY 06  (SUMMERVILLE, SC)
KEAR NDB RWY 36  (KEARNEY, NE)
KEAU NDB RWY 22  (EAU CLAIRE, WI)
KEBS NDB RWY 32  (WEBSTER CITY, IA)
KECG NDB RWY 10  (ELIZABETH CITY, NC)
KEFW NDB RWY 32  (JEFFERSON, IA)
KEGQ NDB RWY 13  (EMMETSBURG, IA)
KEGQ NDB RWY 31  (EMMETSBURG, IA)
KEGT NDB RWY 35  (WELLINGTON, KS)
KEHA NDB RWY 35  (ELKHART, KS)
KEHO NDB RWY 23  (SHELBY, NC)
KEMT NDB-C       (EL MONTE, CA)
KEOE NDB RWY 22  (NEWBERRY, SC)
KEOK NDB RWY 14  (KEOKUK, IA)
KEOK NDB RWY 26  (KEOKUK, IA)
KEOP NDB RWY 25  (WAVERLY, OH)
KEPM NDB RWY 15  (EASTPORT, ME)
KEPM NDB RWY 33  (EASTPORT, ME)
KERI NDB RWY 06  (ERIE, PA)
KERI NDB RWY 24  (ERIE, PA)
KERV NDB RWY 30  (KERRVILLE, TX)
KETC NDB RWY 27  (TARBORO, NC)
KETN NDB RWY 35  (EASTLAND, TX)
KEUL NDB RWY 30  (CALDWELL, ID)
KEVB NDB RWY 29  (NEW SMYRNA BEACH, FL)
KEVV NDB RWY 22  (EVANSVILLE, IN)
KEVY NDB-A       (MIDDLETOWN, DE)
KEWB NDB RWY 05  (NEW BEDFORD, MA)
KEWK NDB RWY 35  (NEWTON, KS)
KEYE NDB RWY 21  (INDIANAPOLIS, IN)
KEYW NDB-A       (KEY WEST, FL)
KEZF NDB RWY 24  (FREDERICKSBURG, VA)
KEZM NDB RWY 02  (EASTMAN, GA)
KEZZ NDB RWY 35  (CAMERON, MO)
KFAF NDB RWY 14  (FT EUSTIS, VA)
KFBG NDB RWY 27  (FT BRAGG, NC)
KFBY NDB-A       (FAIRBURY, NE)
KFCH NDB-B       (FRESNO, CA)
KFDW NDB RWY 04  (WINNSBORO, SC)
KFES NDB RWY 36  (FESTUS, MO)
KFFC NDB RWY 31  (ATLANTA, GA)
KFFL NDB RWY 36  (FAIRFIELD, IA)
KFFM NDB RWY 31  (FERGUS FALLS, MN)
KFHR NDB RWY 34  (FRIDAY HARBOR, WA)
KFHU NDB RWY 26  (FT HUACHUCA, AZ)
KFIT NDB RWY 20  (FITCHBURG, MA)
KFIT NDB-A       (FITCHBURG, MA)
KFKR NDB RWY 09  (FRANKFORT, IN)
KFLV NDB RWY 34  (FT LEAVENWORTH, KS)
KFMH NDB RWY 23  (FALMOUTH, MA)
KFMZ NDB RWY 17  (FAIRMONT, NE)
KFMZ NDB RWY 35  (FAIRMONT, NE)
KFNB NDB-A       (FALLS CITY, NE)
KFOE NDB RWY 13  (TOPEKA, KS)
KFOZ NDB RWY 15  (BIGFORK, MN)
KFPR NDB RWY 28L (FT PIERCE, FL)
KFPR NDB-A       (FT PIERCE, FL)
KFRG NDB RWY 01  (FARMINGDALE, NY)
KFRI NDB RWY 04  (FT RILEY, KS)
KFSE NDB RWY 34  (FOSSTON, MN)
KFSI NDB RWY 17  (FT SILL, OK)
KFSI NDB-A       (FT SILL, OK)
KFSK NDB RWY 18  (FT SCOTT, KS)
KFSM NDB RWY 25  (FT SMITH, AR)
KFTG NDB RWY 26  (DENVER, CO)
KFTK NDB RWY 18  (FT KNOX, KY)
KFTY NDB RWY 08  (ATLANTA, GA)
KFVX NDB RWY 03  (FARMVILLE, VA)
KFWC NDB RWY 09  (FAIRFIELD, IL)
KFXY NDB RWY 33  (FOREST CITY, IA)
KFYE NDB RWY 19  (SOMERVILLE, TN)
KFYM NDB RWY 20  (FAYETTEVILLE, TN)
KFZG NDB RWY 01  (FITZGERALD, GA)
KFZI NDB RWY 27  (FOSTORIA, OH)
KGAI NDB RWY 14  (GAITHERSBURG, MD)
KGBD NDB RWY 35  (GREAT BEND, KS)
KGBR NDB-A       (GREAT BARRINGTON, MA)
KGCK NDB RWY 35  (GARDEN CITY, KS)
KGCY NDB RWY 05  (GREENEVILLE, TN)
KGDV NDB RWY 12  (GLENDIVE, MT)
KGEY NDB RWY 34  (GREYBULL, WY)
KGGE NDB RWY 05  (GEORGETOWN, SC)
KGGF NDB RWY 15  (GRANT, NE)
KGGF NDB RWY 33  (GRANT, NE)
KGGG NDB RWY 13  (LONGVIEW, TX)
KGGW NDB RWY 30  (GLASGOW, MT)
KGHG NDB RWY 06  (MARSHFIELD, MA)
KGHG NDB RWY 24  (MARSHFIELD, MA)
KGLR NDB RWY 09  (GAYLORD, MI)
KGLY NDB RWY 04  (CLINTON, MO)
KGLY NDB RWY 22  (CLINTON, MO)
KGMU NDB RWY 01  (GREENVILLE, SC)
KGNC NDB RWY 35  (SEMINOLE, TX)
KGNF NDB RWY 13  (GRENADA, MS)
KGNG NDB RWY 25  (GOODING, ID)
KGOV NDB RWY 14  (GRAYLING, MI)
KGRD NDB RWY 27  (GREENWOOD, SC)
KGRF NDB RWY 15  (FT LEWIS, WA)
KGRF NDB RWY 33  (FT LEWIS, WA)
KGRK NDB RWY 15  (FT HOOD, TX)
KGRN NDB RWY 22  (GORDON, NE)
KGSO NDB RWY 14  (GREENSBORO, NC)
KGTB NDB RWY 15  (FT DRUM, NY)
KGTB NDB RWY 33  (FT DRUM, NY)
KGTF NDB RWY 34  (GREAT FALLS, MT)
KGUR NDB RWY 32  (GUERNSEY, WY)
KGUY NDB RWY 18  (GUYMON, OK)
KGVL NDB RWY 05  (GAINESVILLE, GA)
KGWR NDB RWY 34  (GWINNER, ND)
KGXY NDB RWY 34  (GREELEY, CO)
KGYH NDB RWY 05  (GREENVILLE, SC)
KGYI NDB RWY 17L (SHERMAN-DENISON, TX)
KGYL NDB RWY 31  (GLENCOE, MN)
KGYY NDB RWY 30  (GARY, IN)
KHBV NDB RWY 13  (HEBBRONVILLE, TX)
KHDO NDB RWY 35R (HONDO, TX)
KHEG NDB-A       (JACKSONVILLE, FL)
KHFF NDB RWY 11  (CAMP MACKALL, NC)
KHFY NDB RWY 01  (INDIANAPOLIS, IN)
KHHG NDB RWY 09  (HUNTINGTON, IN)
KHHW NDB RWY 35  (HUGO, OK)
KHIO NDB-B       (PORTLAND, OR)
KHJH NDB RWY 12  (HEBRON, NE)
KHLN NDB-D       (HELENA, MT)
KHMY NDB RWY 17  (LEXINGTON, OK)
KHMY NDB RWY 35  (LEXINGTON, OK)
KHNZ NDB RWY 06  (OXFORD-HENDERSON, NC)
KHOC NDB RWY 23  (HILLSBORO, OH)
KHOE NDB RWY 14  (HOMERVILLE, GA)
KHOP NDB RWY 23  (FT CAMPBELL/HOPKINSVILLE, KY)
KHQG NDB RWY 02  (HUGOTON, KS)
KHQU NDB RWY 10  (THOMSON, GA)
KHRJ NDB RWY 23  (ERWIN, NC)
KHRO NDB RWY 18  (HARRISON, AR)
KHRU NDB RWY 17  (HERINGTON, KS)
KHRU NDB RWY 35  (HERINGTON, KS)
KHRX NDB RWY 20  (HEREFORD, TX)
KHSA NDB RWY 18  (BAY ST LOUIS, MS)
KHUA NDB RWY 17  (REDSTONE ARSENAL, AL)
KHUT NDB RWY 13  (HUTCHINSON, KS)
KHVC NDB RWY 26  (HOPKINSVILLE, KY)
KHVS NDB RWY 03  (HARTSVILLE, SC)
KHVS NDB RWY 21  (HARTSVILLE, SC)
KHYI NDB RWY 13  (SAN MARCOS, TX)
KHYW NDB RWY 04  (CONWAY, SC)
KHYW NDB RWY 22  (CONWAY, SC)
KHZD NDB RWY 01  (HUNTINGDON, TN)
KHZR NDB RWY 36  (NEW ROADS, LA)
KIAG NDB RWY 28R (NIAGARA FALLS, NY)
KICL NDB-A       (CLARINDA, IA)
KICT NDB RWY 01R (WICHITA, KS)
KIDA NDB RWY 20  (IDAHO FALLS, ID)
KIDP NDB RWY 35  (INDEPENDENCE, KS)
KIER NDB RWY 35  (NATCHITOCHES, LA)
KIIB NDB RWY 18  (INDEPENDENCE, IA)
KIKG NDB RWY 13  (KINGSVILLE, TX)
KILN NDB RWY 04L (WILMINGTON, OH)
KILN NDB RWY 22R (WILMINGTON, OH)
KIMT NDB RWY 01  (IRON MT-KINGSFORD, MI)
KINL NDB RWY 31  (INTERNATIONAL FALLS, MN)
KIOB NDB RWY 03  (MT STERLING, KY)
KIOB NDB RWY 21  (MT STERLING, KY)
KIPJ NDB RWY 23  (LINCOLNTON, NC)
KIRS NDB RWY 18  (STURGIS, MI)
KIRS NDB RWY 24  (STURGIS, MI)
KISB NDB RWY 17  (SIBLEY, IA)
KISB NDB RWY 35  (SIBLEY, IA)
KISN NDB RWY 29  (WILLISTON, ND)
KISW NDB RWY 02  (WISCONSIN RAPIDS, WI)
KISW NDB RWY 30  (WISCONSIN RAPIDS, WI)
KITR NDB RWY 15  (BURLINGTON, CO)
KIZG NDB-B       (FRYEBURG, ME)
KJES NDB RWY 11  (JESUP, GA)
KJES NDB RWY 29  (JESUP, GA)
KJMR NDB RWY 35  (MORA, MN)
KJMS NDB RWY 31  (JAMESTOWN, ND)
KJNX NDB RWY 03  (SMITHFIELD, NC)
KJSV NDB-A       (SALLISAW, OK)
KJVW NDB RWY 12  (RAYMOND, MS)
KJVY NDB RWY 18  (JEFFERSONVILLE, IN)
KJXN NDB RWY 24  (JACKSON, MI)
KJYG NDB RWY 33  (ST JAMES, MN)
KJYL NDB RWY 23  (SYLVANIA, GA)
KJYR NDB RWY 17  (YORK, NE)
KJYR NDB RWY 35  (YORK, NE)
KKLS NDB-A       (KELSO, WA)
KLCG NDB RWY 18  (WAYNE, NE)
KLCG NDB RWY 23  (WAYNE, NE)
KLCG NDB RWY 36  (WAYNE, NE)
KLCI NDB RWY 08  (LACONIA, NH)
KLCK NDB RWY 05R (COLUMBUS, OH)
KLCK NDB RWY 23L (COLUMBUS, OH)
KLCQ NDB RWY 28  (LAKE CITY, FL)
KLDM NDB RWY 26  (LUDINGTON, MI)
KLEE NDB RWY 31  (LEESBURG, FL)
KLGD NDB-B       (LA GRANDE, OR)
KLHW NDB RWY 33R (FT STEWART, GA)
KLIU NDB RWY 01  (LITTLEFIELD, TX)
KLKR NDB RWY 24  (LANCASTER, SC)
KLLN NDB RWY 17  (LEVELLAND, TX)
KLLN NDB RWY 35  (LEVELLAND, TX)
KLNN NDB RWY 10  (WILLOUGHBY, OH)
KLOU NDB RWY 33  (LOUISVILLE, KY)
KLQK NDB RWY 05  (PICKENS, SC)
KLQR NDB RWY 17  (LARNED, KS)
KLRD NDB RWY 17L (LAREDO, TX)
KLRF NDB RWY 25  (JACKSONVILLE, AR)
KLSE NDB RWY 18  (LA CROSSE, WI)
KLUA NDB-A       (LURAY, VA)
KLUK NDB RWY 21L (CINCINNATI, OH)
KLUK NDB RWY 25  (CINCINNATI, OH)
KLUL NDB RWY 13  (LAUREL, MS)
KLWM NDB RWY 05  (LAWRENCE, MA)
KLXL NDB RWY 31  (LITTLE FALLS, MN)
KLXY NDB-A       (MEXIA, TX)
KLYO NDB RWY 17R (LYONS, KS)
KLZU NDB RWY 25  (LAWRENCEVILLE, GA)
KMAI NDB-C       (MARIANNA, FL)
KMAN NDB-A       (NAMPA, ID)
KMAO NDB RWY 04  (MARION, SC)
KMBT NDB RWY 18  (MURFREESBORO, TN)
KMDH NDB RWY 18L (CARBONDALE-MURPHYSBORO, IL)
KMDZ NDB RWY 34  (MEDFORD, WI)
KMEY NDB RWY 20  (MAPLETON, IA)
KMEZ NDB RWY 27  (MENA, AR)
KMFD NDB RWY 32  (MANSFIELD, OH)
KMFI NDB RWY 05  (MARSHFIELD, WI)
KMFI NDB RWY 16  (MARSHFIELD, WI)
KMGM NDB RWY 10  (MONTGOMERY, AL)
KMGR NDB-A       (MOULTRIE, GA)
KMGY NDB-A       (DAYTON, OH)
KMHL NDB RWY 36  (MARSHALL, MO)
KMIV NDB RWY 14  (MILLVILLE, NJ)
KMKC NDB RWY 19  (KANSAS CITY, MO)
KMKV NDB RWY 04  (MARKSVILLE, LA)
KMLE NDB RWY 12  (OMAHA, NE)
KMLJ NDB RWY 28  (MILLEDGEVILLE, GA)
KMMI NDB RWY 02  (ATHENS, TN)
KMMI NDB RWY 20  (ATHENS, TN)
KMNI NDB RWY 02  (MANNING, SC)
KMNM NDB RWY 03  (MENOMINEE, MI)
KMNZ NDB RWY 36  (HAMILTON, TX)
KMOB NDB RWY 14  (MOBILE, AL)
KMOR NDB RWY 05  (MORRISTOWN, TN)
KMPZ NDB RWY 33  (MT PLEASANT, IA)
KMQI NDB RWY 05  (MANTEO, NC)
KMQI NDB RWY 17  (MANTEO, NC)
KMQW NDB RWY 21  (MC RAE, GA)
KMQY NDB RWY 32  (SMYRNA, TN)
KMRH NDB RWY 14  (BEAUFORT, NC)
KMRH NDB RWY 21  (BEAUFORT, NC)
KMRJ NDB RWY 22  (MINERAL POINT, WI)
KMSV NDB RWY 15  (MONTICELLO, NY)
KMTH NDB-A       (MARATHON, FL)
KMTO NDB RWY 29  (MATTOON-CHARLESTON, IL)
KMUI NDB-A       (FT INDIANTOWN GAP, PA)
KMWA NDB RWY 20  (MARION, IL)
KMWH NDB RWY 32R (MOSES LAKE, WA)
KMWO NDB RWY 23  (MIDDLETOWN, OH)
KMWO NDB-A       (MIDDLETOWN, OH)
KMZH NDB RWY 04  (MOOSE LAKE, MN)
KNEL NDB RWY 24  (LAKEHURST, NJ)
KNRN NDB RWY 16  (NORTON, KS)
KNRN NDB RWY 34  (NORTON, KS)
KOAJ NDB RWY 05  (JACKSONVILLE, NC)
KOCH NDB RWY 18  (NACOGDOCHES, TX)
KODO NDB RWY 20  (ODESSA, TX)
KODX NDB RWY 13  (ORD, NE)
KOEL NDB RWY 34  (OAKLEY, KS)
KOIN NDB RWY 35  (OBERLIN, KS)
KOJC NDB-B       (OLATHE, KS)
KOKS NDB RWY 12  (OSHKOSH, NE)
KOKZ NDB RWY 13  (SANDERSVILLE, GA)
KOLD NDB RWY 22  (OLD TOWN, ME)
KOLF NDB RWY 29  (WOLF POINT, MT)
KOLS NDB-C       (NOGALES, AZ)
KOLY NDB RWY 03  (OLNEY-NOBLE, IL)
KONA NDB RWY 30  (WINONA, MN)
KONO NDB RWY 32  (ONTARIO, OR)
KONZ NDB RWY 04  (DETROIT/GROSSE ILE, MI)
KOOA NDB RWY 22  (OSKALOOSA, IA)
KOPL NDB RWY 18  (OPELOUSAS, LA)
KOPN NDB RWY 30  (THOMASTON, GA)
KORB NDB RWY 13  (ORR, MN)
KORC NDB RWY 34  (ORANGE CITY, IA)
KORE NDB RWY 01  (ORANGE, MA)
KORE NDB RWY 32  (ORANGE, MA)
KOSH NDB RWY 36  (OSHKOSH, WI)
KOSU NDB RWY 09R (COLUMBUS, OH)
KOTG NDB RWY 29  (WORTHINGTON, MN)
KOTH NDB RWY 04  (NORTH BEND, OR)
KOUN NDB RWY 03  (NORMAN, OK)
KOUN NDB RWY 35  (NORMAN, OK)
KOWP NDB RWY 35  (SAND SPRINGS, OK)
KOXD NDB RWY 05  (OXFORD, OH)
KPCW NDB RWY 27  (PORT CLINTON, OH)
KPCZ NDB RWY 31  (WAUPACA, WI)
KPEA NDB RWY 34  (PELLA, IA)
KPEO NDB RWY 28  (PENN YAN, NY)
KPHF NDB RWY 02  (NEWPORT NEWS, VA)
KPHF NDB RWY 20  (NEWPORT NEWS, VA)
KPHG NDB-A       (PHILLIPSBURG, KS)
KPHH NDB RWY 36  (ANDREWS, SC)
KPHN NDB RWY 04  (PORT HURON, MI)
KPHT NDB RWY 02  (PARIS, TN)
KPIA NDB RWY 31  (PEORIA, IL)
KPIM NDB RWY 09  (PINE MOUNTAIN, GA)
KPKF NDB RWY 36  (PARK FALLS, WI)
KPMV NDB RWY 16  (PLATTSMOUTH, NE)
KPMV NDB RWY 34  (PLATTSMOUTH, NE)
KPNA NDB-A       (PINEDALE, WY)
KPNM NDB RWY 15  (PRINCETON, MN)
KPNS NDB RWY 35  (PENSACOLA, FL)
KPOB NDB RWY 23  (FAYETTEVILLE, NC)
KPOE NDB RWY 16  (FT POLK, LA)
KPOE NDB RWY 34  (FT POLK, LA)
KPOH NDB RWY 12  (POCAHONTAS, IA)
KPOY NDB RWY 31  (POWELL, WY)
KPPA NDB RWY 17  (PAMPA, TX)
KPSN NDB RWY 36  (PALESTINE, TX)
KPTD NDB RWY 24  (POTSDAM, NY)
KPTN NDB RWY 06  (PATTERSON, LA)
KPTT NDB RWY 17  (PRATT, KS)
KPVC NDB RWY 25  (PROVINCETOWN, MA)
KPVJ NDB RWY 35  (PAULS VALLEY, OK)
KPWC NDB RWY 34  (PINE RIVER, MN)
KPWT NDB RWY 02  (BREMERTON, WA)
KPYG NDB RWY 23  (PAGELAND, SC)
KPYX NDB-A       (PERRYTON, TX)
KRBE NDB RWY 31  (BASSETT, NE)
KRCX NDB RWY 32  (LADYSMITH, WI)
KRFD NDB RWY 01  (CHICAGO/ROCKFORD, IL)
KRFI NDB-B       (HENDERSON, TX)
KRKD NDB RWY 03  (ROCKLAND, ME)
KRKD NDB RWY 31  (ROCKLAND, ME)
KRNT NDB RWY 16  (RENTON, WA)
KROG NDB RWY 20  (ROGERS, AR)
KROS NDB RWY 34  (RUSH CITY, MN)
KRRT NDB RWY 31  (WARROAD, MN)
KRSN NDB RWY 18  (RUSTON, LA)
KRSN NDB RWY 36  (RUSTON, LA)
KRSV NDB RWY 17  (ROBINSON, IL)
KRUE NDB-A       (RUSSELLVILLE, AR)
KRUQ NDB RWY 20  (SALISBURY, NC)
KRVJ NDB RWY 11  (REIDSVILLE, GA)
KRVN NDB RWY 07  (ROGERSVILLE, TN)
KRYM NDB RWY 31  (CAMP RIPLEY, MN)
KRYV NDB RWY 05  (WATERTOWN, WI)
KRYV NDB RWY 23  (WATERTOWN, WI)
KSAA NDB-A       (SARATOGA, WY)
KSAW NDB RWY 01  (MARQUETTE, MI)
KSAZ NDB RWY 14  (STAPLES, MN)
KSBD NDB RWY 06  (SAN BERNARDINO, CA)
KSBO NDB RWY 14  (SWAINSBORO, GA)
KSBU NDB RWY 34  (BLUE EARTH, MN)
KSBX NDB RWY 23  (SHELBY, MT)
KSCH NDB RWY 22  (SCHENECTADY, NY)
KSDA NDB RWY 04  (SHENANDOAH, IA)
KSDY NDB RWY 01  (SIDNEY, MT)
KSDY NDB RWY 19  (SIDNEY, MT)
KSEM NDB RWY 33  (SELMA, AL)
KSER NDB RWY 05  (SEYMOUR, IN)
KSFB NDB-B       (ORLANDO, FL)
KSFB NDB-C       (ORLANDO, FL)
KSGH NDB RWY 24  (SPRINGFIELD, OH)
KSGS NDB-B       (SOUTH ST PAUL, MN)
KSGT NDB RWY 18  (STUTTGART, AR)
KSHD NDB RWY 05  (STAUNTON/WAYNESBORO/HARR, VA)
KSHL NDB RWY 33  (SHELDON, IA)
KSHN NDB-A       (SHELTON, WA)
KSIF NDB RWY 31  (REIDSVILLE, NC)
KSIV NDB RWY 36  (SULLIVAN, IN)
KSIY NDB-A       (MONTAGUE, CA)
KSJT NDB RWY 03  (SAN ANGELO, TX)
KSJX NDB RWY 27  (BEAVER I, MI)
KSKI NDB RWY 36  (SAC CITY, IA)
KSLB NDB RWY 17  (STORM LAKE, IA)
KSLB NDB RWY 35  (STORM LAKE, IA)
KSLI NDB RWY 22L (LOS ALAMITOS, CA)
KSLN NDB RWY 35  (SALINA, KS)
KSLO NDB RWY 18  (SALEM, IL)
KSMS NDB RWY 23  (SUMTER, SC)
KSNK NDB RWY 35  (SNYDER, TX)
KSOA NDB RWY 18  (SONORA, TX)
KSOW NDB-A       (SHOW LOW, AZ)
KSOY NDB RWY 18  (SIOUX CENTER, IA)
KSPF NDB-A       (SPEARFISH, SD)
KSPS NDB RWY 33L (WICHITA FALLS, TX)
KSPW NDB RWY 30  (SPENCER, IA)
KSQI NDB RWY 07  (STERLING/ROCKFALLS, IL)
KSRB NDB RWY 04  (SPARTA, TN)
KSRE NDB RWY 16  (SEMINOLE, OK)
KSTK NDB RWY 33  (STERLING, CO)
KSTP NDB RWY 31  (ST PAUL, MN)
KSUN NDB RWY DMA (HAILEY, ID)
KSUS NDB RWY 08R (ST LOUIS, MO)
KSUS NDB RWY 26L (ST LOUIS, MO)
KSUX NDB RWY 13  (SIOUX CITY, IA)
KSUX NDB RWY 17  (SIOUX CITY, IA)
KSUX NDB RWY 31  (SIOUX CITY, IA)
KSUX NDB RWY 35  (SIOUX CITY, IA)
KSVN NDB RWY 28  (SAVANNAH, GA)
KSWO NDB RWY 17  (STILLWATER, OK)
KSWT NDB RWY 16  (SEWARD, NE)
KSWT NDB RWY 34  (SEWARD, NE)
KSWW NDB RWY 17  (SWEETWATER, TX)
KSYF NDB RWY 32  (ST FRANCIS, KS)
KTAD NDB-A       (TRINIDAD, CO)
KTAN NDB RWY 30  (TAUNTON, MA)
KTBN NDB RWY 32  (FT LEONARD WOOD, MO)
KTDW NDB-A       (AMARILLO, TX)
KTHA NDB RWY 18  (TULLAHOMA, TN)
KTIW NDB RWY 35  (TACOMA, WA)
KTNT NDB RWY 09  (MIAMI, FL)
KTOI NDB RWY 07  (TROY, AL)
KTOR NDB RWY 10  (TORRINGTON, WY)
KTOR NDB RWY 28  (TORRINGTON, WY)
KTPF NDB RWY 04  (TAMPA, FL)
KTQH NDB RWY 17  (TAHLEQUAH, OK)
KTQK NDB RWY 35  (SCOTT CITY, KS)
KTRL NDB RWY 17  (TERRELL, TX)
KTRX NDB RWY 18  (TRENTON, MO)
KTRX NDB RWY 36  (TRENTON, MO)
KTTD NDB-A       (PORTLAND, OR)
KTTN NDB RWY 06  (TRENTON, NJ)
KTUP NDB RWY 36  (TUPELO, MS)
KTVC NDB RWY 28  (TRAVERSE CITY, MI)
KTVF NDB RWY 31  (THIEF RIVER FALLS, MN)
KTVI NDB RWY 22  (THOMASVILLE, GA)
KTWF NDB RWY 26  (TWIN FALLS, ID)
KTZR NDB RWY 04  (COLUMBUS, OH)
KUCP NDB RWY 23  (NEW CASTLE, PA)
KUDG NDB RWY 23  (DARLINGTON, SC)
KUIN NDB RWY 04  (QUINCY, IL)
KUKL NDB RWY 36  (BURLINGTON, KS)
KULS NDB RWY 12  (ULYSSES, KS)
KUMP NDB RWY 15  (INDIANAPOLIS, IN)
KUNI NDB RWY 25  (ATHENS/ALBANY, OH)
KUNU NDB RWY 02  (JUNEAU, WI)
KUNU NDB RWY 20  (JUNEAU, WI)
KUTS NDB RWY 18  (HUNTSVILLE, TX)
KUUV NDB RWY 24  (SULLIVAN, MO)
KUVA NDB RWY 33  (UVALDE, TX)
KUWL NDB RWY 09  (NEW CASTLE, IN)
KUWL NDB RWY 27  (NEW CASTLE, IN)
KVHN NDB RWY 21  (VAN HORN, TX)
KVIQ NDB RWY 28  (NEILLSVILLE, WI)
KVNC NDB RWY 31  (VENICE, FL)
KVNW NDB RWY 09  (VAN WERT, OH)
KVTA NDB RWY 09  (NEWARK, OH)
KVTN NDB RWY 32  (VALENTINE, NE)
KVUJ NDB RWY 22L (ALBEMARLE, NC)
KVVV NDB RWY 34  (ORTONVILLE, MN)
KWDR NDB RWY 31  (WINDER, GA)
KWJF NDB-C       (LANCASTER, CA)
KWYS NDB RWY 01  (WEST YELLOWSTONE, MT)
KXVG NDB RWY 31  (LONGVILLE, MN)
KYKM NDB RWY 27  (YAKIMA, WA)
KYKN NDB RWY 31  (YANKTON, SD)
KYNG NDB RWY 32  (YOUNGSTOWN-WARREN, OH)
KZEF NDB RWY 25  (ELKIN, NC)
KZPH NDB RWY 18  (ZEPHYRHILLS, FL)
KZPH NDB RWY 22  (ZEPHYRHILLS, FL)
KZPH NDB RWY 36  (ZEPHYRHILLS, FL)
L39  NDB RWY 36  (LEESVILLE, LA)
L67  NDB-A       (RIALTO, CA)
M02  NDB RWY 17  (DICKSON, TN)
M18  NDB RWY 16  (HOPE, AR)
MYSM NDB RWY 10  (SAN SALVADOR, , BHS)
N94  NDB-B       (CARLISLE, PA)
NY0  NDB RWY 10  (JOHNSTOWN, NY)
NY0  NDB RWY 28  (JOHNSTOWN, NY)
S01  NDB RWY 24  (CONRAD, MT)
S39  NDB RWY 10  (PRINEVILLE, OR)
T41  NDB RWY 30  (LA PORTE, TX)
T85  NDB RWY 31  (YOAKUM, TX)
TX25 NDB RWY 17  (ATHENS, TX)
U68  NDB RWY 09  (COWLEY-LOVELL-BYRON, WY)
U76  NDB RWY 28  (MOUNTAIN HOME, ID)
X50  NDB RWY 18  (NEW SMYRNA BEACH, FL)

Any chance you can link to the source file from the FAA?  While most people won't have an ARINC 424 viewer handy they are available if you look hard enough, and that would make the answer useful after the database you ran the query against expires :)

Wow! So am I correct thinking this is in principle an EDI like data? I'll second the question about getting to that database. But anyways, thanks a bunch! That's way more than I was hoping for :-)

@voretaq7 I was mistaken, the dataset is not in fact free of charge; but here's the link. It's available on a yearly subscription basis. I have access to data like this through the nature of my work. As for viewers - yes, they are out there, but they're not very good, and I don't know if any would let you do a query like this. I wrote my own script to do the query.

@dvnrrs All the ARINC viewers I've seen have been terrible (actually calling them terrible is a disservice to terrible software products, they're far worse than that). If someone offers me money maybe I'll write a Ruby gem to consume ARINC 424 and emit CSV or something useful :P

The links are dead.

The data as of 2016 is now free of charge.


text:
What is required to fly privately from a region with high levels of the ebola virus (Nigeria) to the UK?
My dad will be flying us in a private aircraft from Nigeria back to the UK.
I know that he has been in touch with someone from the UK about this, but since I wasn't present for the conversation I'm not sure what was discussed.
What precautions and declarations should a pilot make when coming from a heavily infected area? We will be landing at a private airport so the current screenings done by major airports will not be considered.

Avoid transmission vectors (http://www.who.int/mediacentre/factsheets/fs103/en/)

Nigeria is not "heavily infected": in the current outbreak, only 20 people have been infected, and there have been no new cases since September 8.

Its still quite an affected area.

Although the premise of this question (that Nigeria has high levels of ebola virus) is false, the more generic version of the question, along the lines of "What precautions need to be made when flying from an area suffering from an epidemic disease to an area that is not suffering from that disease?", is a good one.

You'll be on a flight plan. You'll have to clear customs at a designated airport and file the appropriate paperwork. More info here:
Notification of Flights
If you notify the border agency it will make recommendations if they think your flight poses a risk. There is only screening at Gatwick and Heathrow.
Ebola Specific Information


text:
What are the must-checks for purchasing an airplane?
I've always dreamed of buying my own plane. Turns out, they can be had for $20,000 on eBay.  This sounds too good to be true.
What checklist of items are essential to prevent my new purchase from falling out of the sky?

Tips: AOPA website

There are plenty of great $20,000 aircraft out there - the hard part is finding them.
"What to look for" is an incredibly broad question, and varies substantially between different types of aircraft: You would not look for the same things on a Piper Comanche as you would on a Cessna 182.
Accordingly the first thing you want to do is find a mechanic who is an expert in the particular type of aircraft to help you check it out and do a "pre-purchase inspection".
Finding those mechanics is actually pretty easy: Look for a "type club" that supports the aircraft you're considering and ask them for recommendations (e.g. for a Cessna I'd talk to the Cessna Pilot's Association, for a Cirrus COPA, for most Piper aircraft the Piper forum, for Beechcraft Beech Talk, etc.
Talk to folks on those forums (and to your mechanic) about what you, as a buyer, should be looking at before you get the mechanic involved for the more detailed inspection. There are lots of things you as a pilot (even a student pilot) can determine just by looking at a plane (and/or the logbooks).
Some key items to look at before you go see the plane:

NTSB Records
Like Larian mentioned go to the NTSB site (or the equivalent if you're not in the USA) and search for accident records. Not every accident will show up in the database, but sometimes you'll find out that the cream puff aircraft being advertised has actually been "substantially damaged" in an accident. The NTSB database search is free and there's no reason not to do it.
Logbooks
All aircraft have logs, so if possible get a copy of them before you even go to look at the plane.
Read through the logs (yes, all of them): You'll find all sorts of interesting things in there, but what you're mainly looking for is good, consistent maintenance and regular use of the aircraft. As a secondary concern you're looking for major repairs (or significant minor ones) that you might want to ask your mechanic about.
FAA Records
You can request a copy of the FAA's records for an aircraft online for a small fee.  This includes registration information and any records of major repairs/alterations ("Form 337") filed for the aircraft.  It is generally an "interesting subset" of the logs.
This is something you'll want to have handy when your mechanic looks at the plane, though it's not something you need to have before you go look at it yourself. Theoretically the owner should have all the documents that this record contains as part of their records/logbooks, but in practice paperwork sometimes gets "lost".

If all that looks good it's time to look at the plane:

How is the overall condition of the aircraft?
Cosmetics can lie, so don't be dazzled by a shiny coat of paint and a nice interior:

Is the on-board paperwork (ARROW) all in order?
Are the tires, hoses, and other rubber components in good condition?
Is the engine bay (relatively) clean? Are there any leaks, drips, or other items of concern?
Are there obvious signs of damage (skin patches, dents, fabric tears, etc.)?
Are there obvious signs of corrosion (bubbles under the paint, etc.)?
Is the paint in overall good condition (no major chips, no cracks, no flaking)?
Is the aircraft itself clean?
(As much as cosmetics lie, a plane that looks like it's been neglected probably has been...)

Does the aircraft pass a very thorough preflight?
Go through the preflight checklist with an eye for anything abnormal -- ask yourself "Would I fly this aircraft today?".
If the answer is no, think carefully about why.
If the answer is yes it may be time to test-fly with the current owner.
Does the aircraft operate correctly on the test flight?

Do the engine and propeller operate properly?
Do all the instruments and avionics function correctly?
Does the aircraft fly well? Can you trim for hands-off straight and level flight?

If the aircraft passes all your checks it's time to turn your mechanic loose on it - they will inspect the aircraft for problems (major and minor) that you as a pilot might not notice which can wind up costing you a lot of money. This pre-purchase inspection (and the ensuing negotiation based on what the mechanic finds) is usually the last stop before handing over your money and taking the keys.

Note that reading aircraft logs is a bit of an art form - if possible sit with the maintenance department at a local flight school and go over the logs for some of their aircraft to get an idea what to look for. Mine make for some interesting light reading if you want to practice.

One of the things to check in the preflight are the avionics, specifically the things that interface with equipment outside the plane (primarily nav and comms stacks). Some light planes contain only a basic comms radio and a transponder; this setup is fine for VFR hops around a well-traveled area, but if you expect to use this plane to train for your instrument rating, or even to fly mixed-nav across country, you'll need nav radios to interface with VOR/DME/ILS. A two-channel nav radio with OBI/ILS is the absolute minimum to run IFR, and GPS comes highly recommended.

@KeithS Yeah, the avionics check will vary depending on the plane/equipment: A Cub with no electrical system won't have much to check, if anything. A tricked out 172 with a glass-panel retrofit & integration with portable devices may need an expert to look at parts of the system.

It's a good practice to also have an annual included with the final agreed on price. If the owner was very hesitant about getting an annual., I would be concerned.

Well, this is a much more opinion based answer, but I'll give it a go:

Airworthiness Certificate (FAA link)
Aircraft Maintenance logs (FAA link) (in particular engine overhaul - AOPA link)
Much like a CarFax, check if it has been involved in any accidents (NTSB link, you can do a registration querry there)

After that, I would say getting an independent inspection by a General Aviation mechanic, and go for a test flight with the current owner (hopefully they will be willing to fly in the aircraft).
Hope that helps.

if they're not willing to fly the aircraft before you buy it, that's almost certainly a very good reason to not buy it :)

Hence my parenthetical. :)  I would back away slowly if they refused.

slowly? I'd run for the nearest cover, expecting the worst to happen, lol. Seen enough "dodgy" light aircraft that might have been airworthy but didn't invite confidence (duct tape on the wing and vertical stab of a C172 for example...). If even the owner is scared to fly it it's got to be worse than that.

@jwenting you gotta move slow with crazies; sudden moves may startle them and set them off into some sort of fit. :)


text:
What are the aircraft requirements to legally offer commercial sightseeing flights in a C-172?
When I retire in a couple years I want to fly my 172 and make some money. Even if I just break even that's ok.  My CFI certificate has expired and I don't want the hassle of having it re-instated. I do have a commercial pilot license.
What would it take to give "scenic airplane rides" legally (so I have insurance). I read far 91.147 but it says nothing about the airplane itself.

Are you talking about working FOR a Part 135 operation, or BEING a Part 135 operation?

@RalphJ, limited sightseeing flights are possible outside 135 (under 91.147).  http://www.aopa.org/Advocacy/Regulatory-,-a-,-Certification-Policy/Regulatory-Brief-Commercial-Air-Tour-Charity-and-Sightseeing-Rule

I think this would fall under 119 1(e)(2) for the aircraft.

We are not lawyers. This is not legal advice. Etc., etc.

It would have to be completely in compliance with ADs and if you are going over 25sm from your base airport or doing any true charter work you need a Part 135 AOC and have to be in compliance with the Part 135 regs. You can get a single pilot operator certificate for one pilot and one plane.  You also would need to comply with Part 136 which regulates air tours.
Things you would have to do are brief passengers on safety features of the aircraft and provide life jackets (if flying over water).  You also need permission to fly over national parks.

136.37 A commercial air tour operator may not conduct commercial air tour
  operations over a national park or tribal land except
(1) In accordance with this section;
(2) In accordance with conditions and limitations prescribed for that operator by the Administrator; and
(3) In accordance with any applicable air tour management plan for the park or tribal lands
   (b) Application for operating authority. Before commencing commercial air tour operations over a national park or tribal lands, a commercial air tour operator shall apply to the Administrator for authority to conduct the operations over the park or tribal land

If you are approved you may be subject to a limited number of tours over the area.
If you are keeping it under Part 91, with in 25sm, you will need a letter of authorization from your FSDO.

Regulations for Part 91
  §91.147   Passenger carrying flights for compensation or hire.
  Each Operator conducting passenger-carrying flights for compensation or hire must meet the following requirements unless all flights are conducted under §91.146.
(a) For the purposes of this section and for drug and alcohol testing, Operator means any person conducting nonstop passenger-carrying flights in an airplane or helicopter for compensation or hire in accordance with §§119.1(e)(2), 135.1(a)(5), or 121.1(d), of this chapter that begin and end at the same airport and are conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport.
(b) An Operator must comply with the safety provisions of Part 136, subpart A of this chapter, and apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from the Flight Standards District Office nearest to its principal place of business.
(c) Each application for a Letter of Authorization must include the following information:
   (1) Name of Operator, agent, and any d/b/a (doing-business-as) under which that Operator does business;
   (2) Principal business address and mailing address;
   (3) Principal place of business (if different from business address);
   (4) Name of person responsible for management of the business;
   (5) Name of person responsible for aircraft maintenance;
   (6) Type of aircraft, registration number(s), and make/model/series; and
   (7) An Antidrug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program registration.
      (d) The Operator must register and implement its drug and alcohol testing programs in accordance with Part 120 of this chapter.
      (e) The Operator must comply with the provisions of the Letter of Authorization received.

I would assume that the aircraft would have to comply with Part 91 requirements.  If in doubt ask your local FSDO.
THIS IS NOT LEGAL ADVICE. I AM NOT A LAWYER NOR DO I WORK FOR THE FAA. THIS IS A PILOT’S INTERPRETATION OF THE FARs.

It needs to be airworthy, as per 91.403, which is defined to include compliance with all ADs:

(c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's
  maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has
  been issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless
  the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related
  procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection
  intervals and related procedures set forth in an operations
  specification approved by the Administrator under part 121 or 135 of
  this chapter or in accordance with an inspection program approved
  under § 91.409(e) have been complied with.

It needs a 100-hour, as per 91.409:

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may
  operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for
  hire ... unless within the preceding 100
  hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or
  100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service in
  accordance with part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection
  for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with
  part 21 of this chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by
  not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the
  inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where
  the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100
  hours of time in service.
  (source: 14 CFR Part 91.409).

Part 43 Appendix D specifies the items which need to be checked in the 100-hour inspection.
And it needs to have all the other necessary mechanic's inspections, including ELT, transponder/pitot static system, etc., and pilot checks, like VOR accuracy.


text:
Does a flight instructor rating supercede a ground instructor rating?
In the FAA jurisdiction, if an instructor candidate were to become a ground instructor (advanced and instrument) and receive that certificate, then later become a flight instructor (and CFII), would there be any value in retaining the ground instructor certificate? The flight instructor certificates held at that point provide all the same privileges. Is the ground instructor certificate superceded?

The flight instructor certificates held at that point provide all the same privileges.

This is not true.  A ground instructor certificate is valid to give ground training for all aircraft... airplane, helicopter, glider, balloon, etc.  A flight instructor must have those ratings on their certificate.
Record keeping requirements also differ between the two certificates.
§61.189(b)(2) requires the flight instructor to keep a record of all knowledge test endorsements to include the student name, date, kind of test and result.
The ground instructor has no such requirement.

The flight instructor must also have an advanced or instrument ground instructor certificate to qualify for a gold seal.

How do record keeping requirements differ?

Just to clarify another point; they are still treated as two separate certificates.  So if one were to sign ground work off under their AGI number and get dinged on some technicality by the FAA and had their instructor cert. suspended it would essentially protect the flight instructor cert.  . . . or so I have been told over and over again.


text:
On a procedure turn, do you make the turn on the inside or outside of the procedure turn?
When flying a procedure turn like the one shown below, the first step is to fly outbound 039 degrees. When you turn inbound to 219 degrees, do you make that turn to the left or to the right? The left meaning to turn to the outside of the procedure turn (a greater distance from the FAF) and the right meaning to turn to the inside of the procedure turn (a shorter distance from the FAF).

If you look at these pictures, it looks like the procedure turn is made outwards from the course:

Section 5-4-9 of the AIM contains a lot of guidance on procedure turns, and says (in short):

If the procedure turn is charted as a teardrop or hold-in-lieu of procedure turn, then it must be flown as charted. (Does not apply in this case.)
If it is a standard procedure turn, the barbed arrow shows the maneuvering side (so the first turn should be flown as indicated), but the rest of the procedure is at the discretion of the pilot, as long as they stay within the distance specified on the chart.

I was taught (and see it as a "standard practice") to turn away from the fix defining the start of the procedure turn for the 180 degree turn, and in fact have never seen anyone fly it the other way.  That being said, there is nothing which prevents it if it can be done within the protected area and accomplishes the purpose of becoming established on the final approach course in time.

A small excerpt from the AIM (lots more information is available there):

5−4−9. Procedure Turn and Hold−in−lieu of Procedure Turn
...

On U.S. Government charts, a barbed arrow indicates the maneuvering side of the outbound course on which the procedure turn is made.
  Headings are provided for course reversal using the 45 degree type
  procedure turn. However, the point at which the turn may be commenced
  and the type and rate of turn is left to the discretion of the pilot
  (limited by the charted remain within xx NM distance). Some of the
  options are the 45 degree procedure turn, the racetrack pattern, the
  teardrop procedure turn, or the 80 degree  260 degree course
  reversal. Racetrack entries should be conducted on the maneuvering
  side where the majority of protected airspace resides. If an entry
  places the pilot on the non−maneuvering side of the PT, correction to
  intercept the outbound course ensures remaining within protected
  airspace. Some procedure turns are specified by procedural track.
  These turns must be flown exactly as depicted.

...

yes, I was always taught you MUST stay on the protected side

In the FAR's it is left up to the pilot how to perform the turn. You just have to do it on the correct side of the approach coarse and stay within the protected area.

In your instrument training, your instructor may have insisted that you fly a standard barbed PT just as it's depicted. Nothing wrong with that. But you don't have to do it that way. Both the FAA's Instrument Flying Handbook and the AIM say that "the point at which the turn may be commenced and the type and rate of turn is left to the discretion of the pilot." Besides the standard 45-180, you can also fly a 90-270 or what some pilots call the 40-second turn, which consists of an abbreviated 45-degree outbound turn to compensate for the effects of a tailwind.
  www.avweb.com
as long as the pilot stays on the side of the procedure turn barb, inside the protected airspace determined by distance or time and does not exceed the maximum holding airspeed you may fly the course reversal as desired.
  aviationtrainingus-rob.blogspot.com

That said, the usual way is to the outside of the procedure. That would give you more distance for the approach.

"a barbed arrow indicates the maneuvering side of the outbound course on which the procedure turn is made"
That only means the procedure must be flown on the east side of the outbound course. It does not tell you which way to turn after flying 039 degrees.
JEPP charts show the entire loop on a procedure turn and they never turn towards the FAF. The turn is always away from the FAF.
Even if you believe that turning right after 039 degrees would keep you in the maneuvering area, do not do it.
No one does it that way and if you are flying with someone else in the flight deck they will question your sanity and not want to fly with you again. :)

I agree with all the above references to AIM 5-4-9, Instrument Flying Handbook and Instrument Procedures Handbook.
Personally, I use whichever course reversal that suits best for the given wind direction and velocity, i.e. I make the wind work for me.
Situation: On the approach depicted above, give yourself a wind from 090@65kt at 3,000'
You will be holding a Hdg of about 055-060 just to make the 039 track, then turn left all the way around to a Hdg of about 155-150 to maintain inbound course of 174...good luck with that!  Much easier for you and comfortable for the passengers to fly/track (354) outbound something like 7-8nm, make a gentle right-hand turn to Hdg of about 160 and let the wind push you on course (174). Boom! Easy money!
If I'm with a new FO, I will brief them on what to expect before Departure or En Route if leg provides time for answering any questions they may present.
Been teaching Jr. Capt's and Fo's the technique/awareness of making the Wind work for you, if you can, for 34 years in fix-wing and rotor-wing! :-)

Look at the top left of the profile view, you see "Remain within 10nm" you can do the turn however you want as long as you remain with in 10nm. A 172 may have no problem staying inside 10nm if they did the turn to the left, a HondaJet might have more trouble remaining within the protected airspace.


text:
Do all passenger aircraft have a nickel cadmium battery?
In the event of both the engines failing in a double engine aircraft, does the aircraft a have nickel cadmium battery to provide propulsion to make a successful landing?

Are you asking about a battery that would provide propulsion somehow, or just one that would keep instruments running?

787 has Li-ion battery

Also, is there a reason for asking about NiCad specifically rather than batteries in general? Some aircraft use different battery chemistries. For example, the 787 is rather noteworthy (somewhat infamously so) for using Lithium batteries. It should also be noted that the batteries are used for a lot more than just powering things if the engines die. For example, batteries are nice to have around for things like starting the engines in the first place and powering lights and such after the engines have been shut down when external power isn't attached.

Many (all?) commercial airliners have ram air turbines for power in case of all engines failing.  Most GA aircraft have magneto ignition, which doesn't require an external power supply.

actually i was asking about batteries for propulsion purposes

Many passenger aircraft originally certified with NiCad batteries (for non-propulsion purposes, obviously) have been retrofitted to lead-acid batteries.

No, they don't.  At least, not for propulsion.

Jet engines burn oil and can't be powered by batteries.
Even if we forget that, jet engines produce enormous amounts of power and no battery technology can store anything close to that much. Certainly not NiCad, which isn't even suitable for powering your phone or laptop.
Airliners are only allowed to operate on routes where, if one engine fails, the plane can still reach an airport with plenty of safety margin. A second engine failing independently is so unlikely that I wouldn't be surprised if it had never happened on a modern plane.
Even if the second engine fails, airliners can still glide for tens of miles to find somewhere to land (e.g., the Gimli Glider and Air Transat flight 236).
In reality, the only way that all your engines are going to fail is if there's a common cause. Running out of fuel is the most obvious, and is in the news at the moment. The other one that comes up from time to time is flying through volcanic ash clouds. The solution to all of these problems is management, not technology. Airlines are very careful to put enough fuel on board for every flight, and regulations require there to be not just enough fuel to reach the destination but also extra to allow for delays and diversions. Likewise, they're very careful not to fly their planes through conditions that will break them.  Another possible common cause is a bird strike, though it's unusual for that to affect more than one engine. However, bird strikes almost always happen close to the ground and it's usually possible to get back to the airport.

So, even if batteries for backup propulsion were possible (which they aren't), they wouldn't be useful. They'd be required on such a minuscule number of flights (surely less than one in a million) that you'd probably kill and injure more people with battery fires than you'd rescue from engine failures.
And that's before you consider the huge amounts of extra weight you'd have to carry around in the form of batteries and electric engines.  Extra weight means you need more power, need to burn more fuel and have less space for passengers and cargo.
Note that planes do carry batteries to power some electrical systems. They also have a thing called a ram air turbine (RAT), which is a little windmill that drops down and provides power for the electrical and hydraulic systems in case of engine failure.

Many information summarized in a short post. Nice to read.

One more reason for second engine failure: pilots shut down the good engine. It's happened twice now: BD92 and GE235


text:
What is the difference between mist and fog?
Fog is a form of a cloud and it is said clouds are visible moisture.  We all know that mist (baby rain) is also moisture so I am curious when will a METAR say BR (mist) or FG (fog)?

I always think of BR as "barely rain" but it actually come from the French word "Brume" meaning mist.   http://www.cfidarren.com/r-metarmystery.htm

Or it could be the French word "brouillard" => fog

@Antzi Related

how would this be off-topic? O_o

I could see the question being off-topic if it stopped at the title question, but the body clearly ties in aviation

Quoting from the METAR decoder:
BR Mist (Foggy conditions with visibilities greater than 5/8 statute mile)

FG Fog (visibility 5/8 statute mile or less)

You may ask "Why 5/8th of a statute mile?"  That's because 5/8ths of a mile is 1,006 meters, or about 1 kilometer.

Great answer thanks.  I found this: http://www.ofcm.gov/fmh-1/pdf/FMH1.pdf page 8-1 states max mist visibility is 7SM.

The main difference between the fog and mist is their density and as a consequence, the visibility. From UK Met office:

... they are two distinct terms for a similar phenomenon. Visibility less than 1,000 metres we call 'fog' and obscurity with visibility greater than 1,000 metres we call 'mist'.

This is the same one given in FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (Page 7-1-62 in Dec 2015 Version). For visibility below 5/8 statute miles (~1000m), the term fog is used, while for values above that, mist is used.

Image from FAA AIM, page 7-1-62

Visibility less than 1000 metres , classified as fog; visibility more than 1000 metres, classified as mist.  These observations may have to be made at sea or ground level.  It would be interesting to hear from aviators how visibility is classified at altitude - in particular: is a 'fog ceiling' a useful and recorded statistic.

What the heck is Snow Grains?

@Burhan Khalid.  Snow Grains are precipitation of very small, white, and opaque grains of ice.


text:
What are the qualifications for a small airport manager?
I live in a small city in the Southeastern United States and the county's airport has an opening for the manager. The airport is paved but no control tower, serves general aviation as well as company jets for regional businesses. They sell aviation gasoline as well as jet a, oil, etc.
What are the qualification for being a good candidate for this job? Are there certifications that would be needed? Would one need to be a pilot?

Is the airport government or private owned? In Australia we have a mix of both, I'm curious about US airports. Plus it would probably change the skills sought after by the owner.

@Airsick You would think so, but sometimes the qualifications listed in a job description are overly simplistic to put it mildly.

This particular airport is run by the county government and the job description was a bit vague.

There are no formal qualifications required to be an airport manager -- it's not a "regulated professional field" in the same way as Doctors, Lawyers, or Professional Engineers.  If a person had the money they could purchase an airport and name themselves "airport manager" of their own facility.
That said, managing an airport has an interesting set of challenges and could probably be described as like being the mayor of a small city with its own road infrastructure (runways, taxiways, and ramp areas), snow removal services, business districts (FBOs, restaurants, & other tenants), municipal services (ARFF), and utilities (airport lighting, fuel farms, drainage systems). The airport manager will also have to interface with federal agencies: The FAA/DOT at a minimum, and likely also the EPA and Homeland Security (TSA/CBP). Working with the local municipality and dealing with local residents on matters like noise abatement is also usually part of the job.
In many ways "airport manager" is as much a political position as an operational one.
Because of the unique challenges involved in managing an airport there are degree programs specifically focused on airport management, and preference will probably be given to applicants with those degrees. Alternatively relevant operational experience (either from running an airport elsewhere or from working in other municipal departments within the county) might be enough to deem a candidate qualified.
There are also professional organizations for airport executives/managers which offer independent certification for individuals.

As a pilot I would say it's advantageous for an airport manager to be a pilot (and in the case of a small airport like the one you describe it would be helpful if they were an active pilot), but being a pilot doesn't really qualify a person in any of the other key operational areas - snow removal, runway maintenance, emergency response, etc. - so while experience as a pilot or controller might be helpful in that it imparts a greater understanding of the operational impact of certain decisions it would likely be viewed as a secondary qualification.


text:
How do stealth aircraft get ATC?
I believe that all aircraft must be controlled under ATC's instructions to fly safely especially when take-off and landing. And, most ATC instructions are conducted by ground radar which controllers use.
But I know that the stealth aircraft (including B-2, F-22 etc.) aren't captured on radar display owing to their stealth ability. If so, how does a controller give instructions like radar vectors to stealth aircraft?
I know that there's are primary and secondary target when using radar, and the controller must use primary target to vector aircraft. I guess stealth aircraft can be captured by secondary radar but not primary target.

They switch on their transponder. Simple as that.

the controller must use primary target to vector aircraft This is wrong.  RADAR vectors are given using secondary RADAR.

No, controller must use the secondary target to vector aircraft. There was even talk about turning the primary radar off altogether. Stealth aircraft can simply turn on the transponder to make themselves visible on the secondary radar when flying in friendly territory and secrecy is not required.

It doesnt really matter if it's primary or secondary radar target. It must be identified, then you can give vectors and assign altitudes. You can give radar vectors to primary target, they just need to be identified...

It's also not true that stealth aircraft are completely invisible to radar.

The concept of ATC is based on primary radar targets, secondary radar targets and radio communication being used to determine the position of aircraft and establish separation.
The concept of stealth aircraft is to reduce production of primary radar targets and being able to turn off transponders to disable secondary radar targets being visible. Stealth aircraft also do not communicate on frequencies during tactical missions, they are designed and meant to reduce radio emission to enable the stealth features.
If they are not on a tactical mission and stealth is not required, they will simply turn on their transponders and communicate with ATC on the required frequencies.

How are you defining "on a tactical mission"?

A mission that requires stealth. ;) @fooot

What if they are in controlled airspace though?

If you are on a stealth sortie, you do not care about controlled airspace. You are either in hostile airspace or within a MOA/TRA practicing...

Wouldn't it be strange to the hostiles that a mysterious aircraft just conveniently disappears before entering their airspace?

I assume they already turn invisible to radar beforehand... :) Otherwise yes, it would defeat the purpose...

The point I'm trying to make is that there can be some period where they must be stealthy in controlled airspace, where presumably ATC would need to deal with their presence.

Let us continue this discussion in chat.

@foot, there is generally plenty of time during transit to go dark outside of ATC controlled airspace, but before entering hostile territory.  Not speaking from any direct stealth experience, but I've flown over a hundred tactical missions over Iraq and Bosnia, and combat checklists backed up with AWACS control and mission check-in procedures do a pretty solid job of ensuring that nobody squawks over bad guy country, and normal return checklists cover getting it back on.

They'd probably have an AWACs near by which would 'see' all the local air traffic where the tactical mission takes place and speak to the tactical aircraft through encrypted radio coms.

First off:
"I believe that all aircraft must be controlled under ATC's instructions to fly safely especially when take-off and landing."
Not true.   When I fly my small Cessna from an untowered airport in VFR conditions, I don't file a flight plan, and I don't talk to ATC.  I do make annoucments on the CTAF, but that is not even required.   I would be completely legal to take off, fly and land, never turning on my radio or talking to anyone.  "See-and-avoid is the rule.
Secondly:
 Stealth aircraft are stealthy only when they are trying to be.  Something as simple as lowering the landing gear would provide a strong radar return.  The transponder can indicate position, ADS-B can provide precise updates, and the pilot can verbally describe their position to ATC.

ATC concept is based on cooperative targets (i.e. willing to send their position to the ATC radar). I suppose that they are equipped on board with a transponder that is switched on when there is a need for air control.

They attach radar reflectors so as to be visible to ATC's primary radar. This is in addition to turning on the transponder (secondary radar).


text:
Can anyone identify this pusher biplane?

This plane was probably built around 1912. I do not know by what company built this. Does anyone know what airplane this is?

Similar: Maurice Farman 6bis.

I don't personally know what plane this is, but if you're really determined to find out, I'd recommend Wikipedia's List of Pusher Aircraft by Configuration as a good place to start.

For kicks, who can identify the plane in the background?

It looks like a Farman Aviation Works design but many builders copied the Farman designs.
Most Farman aircraft had straight boxed struts but some had staggered wings and slanted struts:
Maurice Farman biplane

Source: http://flyingmachines.ru/Site2/Crafts/Craft28602.htm#tabs-1

Source:  ebay auction
Also similar to the MF.9

Source:http://flyingmachines.ru/Site2/Crafts/Craft28795.htm

Also: this and this (in French). The three Farman brothers have been very active.


text:
Why aren't compressor and turbine blades flat?
Why are the compressor and turbine blades of a jet engine shaped as airfoils?  Why can't they be flat?

Related: What is the performance of a flat plate wing?

@CarloFelicione that question is about changes along the length of fan blades, this one is about the profile of turbine and compressor blades. Different parts and different properties.

Guten Tag, Manfred - would you mind to spell your name correctly?


text:
Why and how do flaps increase the curvature of the wing?
Why or how do flaps increase the curvature of the wing? Do they alter the curvature of the upper surface of the wing?

Possible duplicate of Why and when to use flaps?

Nope it doesnt answer my question there...i want to know how do they increase the camber of a wing?

is it because they are designed with a camber so that when they are attached to the wing there will be two curvatures or two cambers of the wing which will increase the wing camber? thats why?

Welcome Karim! Is that what you want to understand?

@mins link is not working

@mins Try clearing your cache, still not working for me.

There's actually numerous different kinds of flaps. Not all of them increase camber. If you're talking about the ones at the rear of the wing on most airliners then that's a Fowler flap. And they do increase camber because they are angled downward

@RonBeyer & ymb1 the image works fine here (also before)

@RonBeyer Link works fine for me, too.

Flaps change both the camber of a wing as well as its chord line and angle of attack. All the following images were taken from this article.
You can see the camber line here in a retracted scenario:

And here in an extended scenario:

As for the why, flaps are generally used to allow you to slow an aircraft down at a give pitch angle. This allows the pilot to pitch the aircraft down without an increase in speed. Generally a pitch down (given no other things are changed) will result in an increase in speed.
Flaps also change the angle of attack of the wing as well as the chord line:

All of this is a bit of an over generalization as there are many types of flaps and it's worth looking into the different types and how they operate.

Not only to slow the plane down but also to provide greater lift at a slower speed.  On short-runway takeoff, for instance.

Regarding the change in angle of attack, lift is roughly proportional to the angle between the relative wind and a "zero lift" line which is usually not the geometric chord of the wing. Wouldn't it be more interesting to consider how much the direction of "zero lift" changes, rather than how much the direction of the geometric chord line changes? I think I recall from somewhere that the zero-lift direction changes more than the geometric chord does.


text:
Why is the magneto drop check done at 1700 RPM?
In our Cessna 152, we carry out the mag drop check at 1700 RPM, following the POH. My question is why it is done at 1700 RPM? What will happen If I check it at 2000 RPM or less than 1700 RPM? And if I do check it at another RPM setting, will the RPM drop get be acceptable, or will it give an incorrect result?

I honestly thought the question title said "17000 RPM".  I thought, wow, that would be a sight to behold, and hear! Edited to make it a little clearer.

'Performing an in-flight mag check at cruise power' might be a good test, but I think I would rather discover any issues with the ignition system prior to take-off. In my opinion, the Lycoming Service Instruction 1132B, issued June 18, 2010, provides a good procedure to use - even if magneto drop doesn't exceed 175 RPM during the pre-flight check.

According to this article from the New Zealand CAA:

The particular rpm setting at which the check is done is not very
  important for the purposes of the check, but other engine handling
  considerations will usually mean a recommendation from the engine or
  aircraft manufacturer for an rpm setting from the low end of the
  cruise power range. From the magneto checking point of view, the
  important aspect is that the check on any particular aircraft should
  be done consistently at the same rpm, so that any trend can be
  monitored. There is little to be gained, for example, in comparing
  today’s 150 rpm drop at 2000 rpm with yesterday’s 100 rpm drop at 1700
  rpm

And this Lycoming service instruction mentions a range of 1800-2000RPM:

Aircraft that are equipped with fixed pitch propellers, or not
  equipped with a manifold pressure gage, may check magneto drop-off
  with the engine operating at approximately 1800 RPM (2000 RPM
  maximum).

Obviously you should always follow the procedure and the RPM settings in the aircraft's POH, but those quotes suggest that getting the RPM exactly right isn't essential. However, the comment about consistency implies that the RPM drops will be different depending on your starting RPM, so if you don't use the POH settings then you have no way to know if what you're seeing is acceptable or not.
As for why 1700RPM and not some other value, I assume it's a setting that the engine manufacturer decides is high enough to put a realistic load on the engine but not so high that you could overheat it during the run-up checks. Or, as GdD suggested, it could be to avoid overloading the brakes. But I'm not an engine expert, and someone else might be able to give you a better explanation.

It might not be an engine question, maybe it's to keep engine power within safe braking limits.

@GdD Thanks, I'll add that to my answer

At lower RPM the mixture has more time to burn, so the RPM drop due to only one spark plug sparking would be lower. And you need that drop to validate the tests (make sure that the switch does actually ground the magnetos).

@JanHudec Well, the point of the RPM drop is to see if the engine will still keep the aircraft flying on one mag. Grounding is a different check where you cut both mags off for a second.

@Pondlife, the checklists I've seen did not mention turning both mags off at all, only that when you run on one, the RPM should drop by not more than something. If it drops more, it means some spark plug does not spark. But if it does not drop at all, it means both magnetos are still providing power, rendering the rest of the test invalid.

@JanHudec That's interesting, I was trained from the beginning (in 152s) to cut both mags as well as doing the RPM drop check. A DPE actually remarked on it during a checkride and said something like "no one does that any more, but they should". Of course, that might just mean that he's a crusty old-timer and it's really irrelevant today :-)

Probably not wise to cut both mags at 1700 RPM. Could lead to detonation. According to the Bendix AD 76-07-12 “(b) With the engine at normal idle, rotate the switch key or lever through the "OFF" detent to the extreme limit of its travel in the "OFF" direction.”

@Jan Hudec To amplify what you said,  if running on a single mag does not result in an RPM drop, it means that the mag is not grounded properly. You could have a hot prop when on the ground and moving it could result in injury. The amount of drop varies but it should be between 76 and 150 RPM on most airplanes.

@JScarry I wasn't very clear there: I learned to cut both mags after starting up and before shutting down. During runup checks only one at a time, though.

My Cherokee and the Cessna 182 are prone to plug fouling if not leaned aggressively, so, like you, I started doing a mag check just before shutdown. It’s much better to find out that you have fouled plugs when you get back from a flight rather than when you are getting ready to take off.

It's not a magic number and, truth be told, the runup mag check is not a very good check of ignition system health.  It's more of a "good'nuf" holdover from an era before multiprobe engine monitors.
Checking mags at 1000, 1200, 1500, 1700, 2750...whatever...is really a check to make sure that the mags ground and that they both work in the sense that the cause the spark plugs to...well...spark.  Mags can be cycled at any RPM  and, in fact, should be tested in flight with a lean mixture.  A real, true, useful ignition system check involves more than just switching to L, R, and Both.
My go-to sources for GA engine operation are John Deakin and Mike Busch.  I don't necessarily agree with them on 100% of their opinions but do subscribe to their overall engine operation recommendations.
John Deakin touches on mag checks here: http://www.avweb.com/news/pelican/182179-1.html
The main point being:

If you want to do a real mag check, then get the engine up to some
  significant power setting (hard on the engine, airplane, and prop),
  perhaps 2000 RPM, lean the mixture until the RPM rises a bit, then
  falls on the lean side, and check each mag for 10 seconds or more,
  while watching the EGT bars on your engine monitor. All EGTs should
  rise on one mag, and fall back to the starting point on BOTH, and the
  engine should run smoothly (assuming very good fuel distribution).

And Mike Busch: http://blog.savvymx.com/2010/03/mag-check.html?m=1
Takeaway:

The usual pre-flight mag check is a relatively non-demanding test, and
  will only detect gross defects in the ignition system. To make sure
  your engine's ignition is in tip-top shape, we recommend performing an
  in-flight mag check at cruise power and a lean mixture (preferably a
  lean-of-peak mixture). Because a lean mixture is much harder to ignite
  than a rich one, an in-flight LOP mag check is the most demanding and
  discriminating way to test your ignition system. It's a good idea to
  perform one every flight or two.

I can't find a good reason anywhere for the 1700 RPM mag check.  It seems to be the result of an engineer back in the 1950s thinking, "well, the pilot should test mags but maybe not at idle and certainly not at takeoff power...sooooo...1700 RPM I guess."