A 29-year-old G3 P2 woman has an uncomplicated pregnancy, and an ultrasound scan at 18 weeks gestation is completely normal. At 37 weeks she has the sudden onset of pelvic pain accompanied by passage of blood per vagina. Her membranes have not ruptured nor is she having labor contractions. Fetal monitoring reveals that the baby is in distress, and an emergent cesarean section is performed. The gross appearance of the placenta is shown here. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? <image 1> 
['Ectopic pregnancy', 'Placenta previa', 'Placenta accreta', 'Molar pregnancy', 'Abruptio placenta', 'Pregnancy-induced hypertension']