Dataset Viewer
inputs
stringlengths 479
7.85k
| targets
stringlengths 5
255
| _template_idx
int64 0
9
| _task_source
stringclasses 1
value | _task_name
stringclasses 1
value | _template_type
stringclasses 2
values |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
[EX Q]: Abstract: In chronically catheterized rats hepatic glycogen was increased by fructose (approximately 10 g/kg) gavage (FF rats) or lowered by overnight food restriction (FR rats). [3-3H]- and [U-14C]glucose were infused before, during, and after treadmill running. During exercise the increase in glucose production (Ra) was always directly related to work intensity and faster than the increase in glucose disappearance, resulting in increased plasma glucose levels. At identical work-loads the increase in Ra and plasma glucose as well as liver glycogen breakdown were higher in FF and control (C) rats than in FR rats. Breakdown of muscle glycogen was less in FF than in C rats. Incorporation of [14C]glucose in glycogen at rest and mobilization of label during exercise partly explained that 14C estimates of carbohydrate metabolism disagreed with chemical measurements. In some muscles glycogen depletion was not accompanied by loss of 14C and 3H, indicating futile cycling of glucose. In FR rats a postexercise increase in liver glycogen was seen with 14C/3H similar to that of plasma glucose, indicating direct synthesis from glucose. In conclusion, in exercising rats the increase in glucose production is subjected to feedforward regulation and depends on the liver glycogen concentration. Endogenous glucose may be incorporated in glycogen in working muscle and may be used directly for liver glycogen synthesis rather than after conversion to trioses. Fructose ingestion may diminish muscular glycogen breakdown. The [14C]glucose infusion technique for determination of muscular glycogenolysis is of doubtful value in rats.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Carbohydrate metabolism in fructose-fed and food-restricted running rats. option2: Chemonucleolysis and microsurgery for lumbar disk disease [letter]
[EX A]: Carbohydrate metabolism in fructose-fed and food-restricted running rats.
[EX Q]: Abstract: We compared the MCR, volume of distribution, and rapid phase (rt1/2) and slow phase half-lives of purified pituitary rat (r) TSH, TSH from crude pituitary extracts of normal and hypothyroid rats, TSH from hypothyroid rat sera, and TSH secreted from hypothyroid rat pituitaries incubated in vitro. For 3 h after iv bolus injection into euthyroid rats, 125I-labeled rTSH was determined by acid precipitation in serum and various organs, and unlabeled TSH was measured by RIA. The MCR of TSH from normal pituitary extracts (0.53 +/- 0.02 ml/min) was similar to that of unlabeled purified rTSH (0.52 +/- 0.03), while those from hypothyroid pituitary extracts (0.32 +/- 0.03) and hypothyroid sera (0.33 +/- 0.01) were decreased. The reduced MCR of TSH from hypothyroid pituitaries was due to a decreased distribution volume (8.4 +/- 0.6 ml) compared to that from normal pituitaries (11.4 +/- 0.7) and hypothyroid sera (10.9 +/- 0.8). The decreased MCR of circulating TSH from hypothyroid sera reflected an increase in its rt1/2 (12.6 +/- 0.5 min) vs. that from both normal (5.1 +/- 0.5) and hypothyroid (5.7 +/- 0.4) pituitaries. The rt1/2 of secreted TSH from incubated hypothyroid rat pituitaries (8.5 +/- 0.9) was intermediate between those of circulating and pituitary forms of hypothyroid rTSH. The clearances of intact bovine TSH (bTSH) and deglycosylated bTSH (dg-bTSH) were compared. The dg-bTSH MCR was found to be increased (0.71 +/- 0.02 ml/min) compared to that of bTSH (0.59 +/- 0.02), primarily due to a decreased rt1/2 for dg-bTSH (3.8 +/- 0.1 min) vs. bTSH (4.7 +/- 0.2). Uptake of purified [125I]rTSH was highest in the kidney at all times, varying from 43% of the injected dose at 5 min to 54% at 180 min. We conclude that in the euthyroid rat, 1) the metabolic clearance of TSH differs between pituitary and serum forms and appears to depend on specific molecular features that vary with the physiological state of the animal from which the TSH is derived; 2) since chemical deglycosylation increased the clearance of TSH, we speculate that the chemical basis for changes in TSH clearance may be related to alterations in its carbohydrate structure; and 3) for normal pituitary TSH, the kidney is the major organ of clearance.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Differences in the metabolic clearance of pituitary and serum thyrotropin (TSH) derived from euthyroid and hypothyroid rats: effects of chemical deglycosylation of pituitary TSH. option2: Glycerol rhizotomy for trigeminal neuralgia [letter]
[EX A]: Differences in the metabolic clearance of pituitary and serum thyrotropin (TSH) derived from euthyroid and hypothyroid rats: effects of chemical deglycosylation of pituitary TSH.
[EX Q]: Abstract: Five patients with Kaposi's sarcoma seen and treated at the Louisiana State University Medical Center in Shreveport from 1970 to 1984 are presented. A complete response was observed in two patients who received extended-field irradiation. Results obtained with external beam radiotherapy for this disease from other reported patients series are summarized.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Kaposi's sarcoma: report of five cases treated with radiotherapy. option2: Remodeling of the temporomandibular joint disk and posterior attachment in disk displacement specimens in relation to glycosaminoglycan content.
[EX A]:
|
Kaposi's sarcoma: report of five cases treated with radiotherapy.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: Tuberculous aortitis is a rare entity and its association with necrosis and perforation is even more unusual. Our pulmonary medicine service originally evaluated an elderly woman with a right pleural effusion and upper lobe infiltrate thought to be tuberculosis. An abdominal CT scan performed at that time showed extensive periaortic adenopathy. Isoniazid and rifampin were started, but both were stopped by the patient after less than 6 months of therapy. The patient later had night sweats, a left pleural effusion, and a tender abdominal mass thought to be a symptomatic aneurysm. At operation, the aorta was necrotic and had an inflammatory mass and perforation on the left side. Infrarenal aortic ligation and resection were performed to control infection. A previously placed axillofemoral graft obviated the need for concomitant revascularization. The patient was treated postoperatively with isoniazid and rifampin until hyperbilirubinemia developed, which necessitated alternate therapy with ethambutol and streptomycin. The patient died one month after operation of a presumed pulmonary embolus.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Tuberculous aortitis with associated necrosis and perforation: treatment and options. option2: Low birth weight, vital records, and infant mortality.
Output: Tuberculous aortitis with associated necrosis and perforation: treatment and options.
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: The steady state levels of the prodynorphin-derived opioid peptides, dynorphin A, dynorphin B, and alpha-neo-endorphin, have been extensively studied in the magnocellular/posterior pituitary system of the rat. To determine whether the rat system serves as a general model for prodynorphin processing in the mammalian posterior pituitary, we examined the steady state levels of prodynorphin-derived opioid peptides in the posterior pituitary systems of representatives of three diverse orders of mammals: guinea pig (order Rodentia), pig (order Artiodactyla), and rhesus monkey (order Primates). In each species studied there was evidence for species-specific deviations from the rat model. The most pronounced differences were observed with respect to the conversion of dynorphin A-(1-17) to dynorphin A-(1-8). In rodents, rats, and guinea pigs, under steady state conditions, the molar ratios of these forms are approximately 1:2 and 2.5:1, respectively. However, in the pig and rhesus monkey, the molar ratios of these forms are 10:1 and 14:1, respectively. Thus, under steady state conditions, the conversion of dynorphin A-(1-17) to dynorphin A-(1-8) appears to be a minor event in porcine and rhesus monkey posterior pituitary. Species-specific variations were also observed with respect to the steady state levels of alpha-neo-endorphin and dynorphin B-(1-13). In addition, the results of these studies suggest that the conversion of prodynorphin-derived opioids to leu-enkephalin probably represents a minor event in the species studied.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Species-specific processing of prodynorphin in the posterior pituitary of mammals. option2: Iodination of monoclonal antibodies for diagnosis and radiotherapy using a convenient one vial method.
Output: Species-specific processing of prodynorphin in the posterior pituitary of mammals.
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: The characteristic clinical and histological features of three cases of malignant eccrine poroma are discussed, in addition to the metastatic disease that had occurred in two cases. These cases were compared with previously reported cases of malignant eccrine poroma that had metastasised, and it is suggested that a strict classification of malignant eccrine sweat gland tumours should be made.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Malignant eccrine poroma: report of three cases. option2: Immunosuppressive factor (or factors) produced by human embryos in vitro [letter]
|
Output: Malignant eccrine poroma: report of three cases.
| 2
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Abstract: A case is reported in which an epithelioid sarcoma developed in an apparently benign enchondroma or bone infarct at the site of a chrome-cobalt total knee replacement.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Epithelioid sarcoma in association with total knee replacement. A case report. option2: Angiosarcoma of the head and neck: review of 11 cases.
Epithelioid sarcoma in association with total knee replacement. A case report.
Abstract: Health-risk appraisals (HRAs) are self-scored questionnaires or computer programs that use demographic and risk-factor data to estimate the most likely causes of death and to provide guidance on how to reduce risk of death. The clinical usefulness of HRAs lies in their ability to motivate patients to modify negative habits and lifestyles. Still very much in a developmental stage, HRAs are not substitutes for preventive health examinations and are best used in conjunction with ongoing physician-supervised health-promotion and disease-prevention efforts.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Health-risk appraisal. Helping patients predict and prevent health problems. option2: Graves' disease and thyroid cancer.
Health-risk appraisal. Helping patients predict and prevent health problems.
Abstract: A retrospective evaluation was done of 102 consecutive in in vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) treatment cycles that culminated in surgical intervention for oocyte pickup. In 35% of these patients, a disparity was noted in the number of mature follicles present on the day of human chorionic gonadotropin administration, compared with the day of surgery. This suggests the occurrence of undetected ovulation. An endogenous luteinizing hormone (LH) surge was detected in 14 of these patients. Another cohort showed evidence of early luteinization without a detected endogenous LH surge. Finally, a group without early luteinization was defined. Possible explanations for these outcomes and the implications for success of IVF-ET are discussed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Undetected ovulation in in vitro fertilization-embryo transfer patients. option2: Estrogen and progesterone receptor assays on the vulvar epithelium.
|
Undetected ovulation in in vitro fertilization-embryo transfer patients.
| 0
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Let me give you an example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
The answer to this example can be: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Here is why: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
OK. solve this:
Abstract: A 58-year-old subject with a history of occupational asthma to red-cedar sawdust underwent specific inhalation challenges with this product. Significant increases in airway responsiveness to histamine (tenfold fall in PC20 FEV1) were documented 7 hours after exposure for 5 minutes to red cedar while baseline spirometry remained unchanged. A dual asthmatic reaction was induced during the following days by exposing the subject to red-cedar sawdust for 30 minutes and plicatic acid for 7 minutes. After recovery of PC20, the subject was reexposed to plicatic acid for 15 and 30 seconds on 2 consecutive days. No significant changes in FEV1, forced vital capacity, and residual volume were demonstrated in the following 8 hours, although minimal changes in forced expiratory flow rate between 25% and 75% of FVC were observed. PC20 dropped significantly and required 2 weeks to recover. This example illustrates that bronchial hyperresponsiveness to histamine can precede the changes in airway caliber after an antigen challenge. It also demonstrates that such changes can persist for up to 2 weeks after the challenge, even when no significant changes in FEV1 are induced.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Exposure to a sensitizing occupational agent can cause a long-lasting increase in bronchial responsiveness to histamine in the absence of significant changes in airway caliber. option2: Introduction of homologous DNA sequences into mammalian cells induces mutations in the cognate gene.
Answer:
|
Exposure to a sensitizing occupational agent can cause a long-lasting increase in bronchial responsiveness to histamine in the absence of significant changes in airway caliber.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
TASK DEFINITION: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
PROBLEM: Abstract: The authors present the case of a 25-year-old man with idiopathic pachymeningitis hypertrophica that caused cervical radiculopathy. Decompressive surgery produced significant neurological improvement. The etiology and management of the condition are discussed and the literature is reviewed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Pachymeningitis cervicalis hypertrophica. Case report. option2: Peripartum colloid osmotic pressures: correlation with serum proteins.
SOLUTION: Pachymeningitis cervicalis hypertrophica. Case report.
PROBLEM: Abstract: To determine the timing of symptoms and oocyst excretion after the acquisition of cryptosporidium infection, we used a screening parasitologic stool examination to identify patients and then contacted them for the collection of retrospective histories and follow-up stool specimens. The study included 68 otherwise healthy patients with an identifiable source and time of infection. All 68 had diarrhea, 61 had abdominal pain, most also had other gastrointestinal symptoms, 33 had fever, and all recovered spontaneously. Among the 50 patients who submitted follow-up stool samples, more than 90 percent of the 610 symptomatic days and of the 136 oocyst-positive stools occurred between days 7 and 28 of infection, the mean incubation period was 7.2 days (range, 1 to 12), and the mean duration of illness was 12.2 days (range, 2 to 26). During the oocyst-excretion period cryptosporidium was detected in 90 percent of Ziehl-Neelsen-stained fecal concentrates. The end of oocyst excretion could be accurately determined in 26 patients; 19 (73 percent) had positive stools after the cessation of symptoms for a mean period of 6.9 days (range, 1 to 15). Fourteen patients were studied for two or more months, and in three of them asymptomatic episodes of oocyst excretion were detected up to two months after clinical recovery. We conclude that many cases of symptomatic cryptosporidiosis occur among immunocompetent patients, some of whom may excrete oocysts even when they have become asymptomatic. Conversely, infected symptomatic patients may occasionally have intermittently negative stools.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Timing of symptoms and oocyst excretion in human cryptosporidiosis. option2: Mammographic screening: how to operate successfully at low cost [letter]
SOLUTION: Timing of symptoms and oocyst excretion in human cryptosporidiosis.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Doxepin hydrochloride, a tricyclic antidepressant, was evaluated in a double-blind, placebo-controlled crossover trial for the treatment of chronic idiopathic urticaria in 16 adults. Efficacy was evaluated by symptom scores, concomitant antihistamine use, and suppression of histamine- and codeine-induced wheal response. Doxepin-treated subjects experienced fewer lesions (p less than 0.001), less waking hours with lesions (p less than 0.01), lesser degree of itch and/or discomfort (p less than 0.001), and less swelling or angioedema (p less than 0.001) as compared to placebo-treated subjects. Doxepin-treated subjects required less daily concomitant antihistamine use (mean 0.13 tablets versus 1.48 tablets, p less than 0.05). Doxepin also significantly suppressed histamine- and codeine-induced cutaneous wheal response as compared to placebo. Lethargy was commonly observed but diminished with continued use. Dry mouth and constipation were also commonly observed. We conclude that doxepin is an effective agent for the treatment of chronic idiopathic urticaria.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Efficacy of doxepin in the treatment of chronic idiopathic urticaria. option2: Determination of helper:suppressor T-cell ratios [letter]
SOLUTION:
|
Efficacy of doxepin in the treatment of chronic idiopathic urticaria.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
You will be given a definition of a task first, then an example. Follow the example to solve a new instance of the task.
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Why? The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
New input: Abstract: A specific radioimmunoassay has been established for a growth hormone-dependent insulinlike growth factor (IGF) binding protein (BP) from human plasma. Although the assay was directed against a 53-kD, acid-stable BP subunit, the main immunoreactive BP in the circulation had an apparent molecular mass of approximately 125 kD. Only higher primate species showed cross-reactivity, and IGF-I, IGF-II, and other peptides were without effect. Circulating BP levels in healthy subjects rose threefold from early childhood to puberty. In 65 adults aged 18 to 65, the mean level (+/- SD) was 6.12 +/- 1.43 micrograms/ml, and declined with age. Strong growth hormone-dependence of BP was also seen; there was a 2.2-fold increase in active acromegaly and a 50-80% reduction in growth hormone deficiency. Poorly controlled diabetic subjects had BP levels 40% below normal, whereas in renal failure and third-term pregnancy a mild elevation was seen. Measurement of BP may provide a useful adjunct to IGF assays in growth disorders.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Radioimmunoassay of growth hormone-dependent insulinlike growth factor binding protein in human plasma. option2: Thyroid hypofunction in premenstrual syndrome [letter]
Solution:
|
Radioimmunoassay of growth hormone-dependent insulinlike growth factor binding protein in human plasma.
| 0
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example is below.
Q: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
A: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Rationale: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Q: Abstract: A number of agents that mimic the ability of the thyroid hormone, T3, to decrease plasma cholesterol levels are described; one is as effective as T3 at reducing cholesterol levels and stimulating liver function, but has very little effect on cardiac function and is thus less likely to be toxic. The agent may be useful in the treatment of atherosclerosis.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: A thyromimetic that decreases plasma cholesterol levels without increasing cardiac activity. option2: Kidney changes after extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy: CT evaluation.
A:
|
A thyromimetic that decreases plasma cholesterol levels without increasing cardiac activity.
| 9
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
TASK DEFINITION: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
PROBLEM: Abstract: The course of a pregnant patient at term who was acutely exposed to carbon monoxide is described. A review of the fetal-maternal carboxyhemoglobin relationships and the differences in fetal oxyhemoglobin physiology are used to explain the recommendation that pregnant women with carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% oxygen therapy for up to five times longer than is otherwise necessary. The role of hyperbaric oxygen therapy is considered.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Acute carbon monoxide poisoning during pregnancy. option2: Immune haemolytic anaemia and nomifensine treatment in north west England 1984-85: report of six cases.
SOLUTION: Acute carbon monoxide poisoning during pregnancy.
PROBLEM: Abstract: A bulky compression dressing (the Robert Jones bandage) is often used by orthopaedic surgeons. We have reviewed its history and monitored intramuscular compartment pressure under it after total knee replacement. We found that it increased compartment pressure and helped to reduce bleeding, tissue oedema and the size of effusions and haemarthroses.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: The Robert Jones bandage. option2: Treatment of acute deep venous thrombosis with fibrinolytic agents.
SOLUTION: The Robert Jones bandage.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Slowly adapting pulmonary stretch receptors have been hypothesized to be the afferents mediating the vagally dependent, volume-related prolongation of expiratory time (TE) during expiratory loading. It has been further suggested that the vagal component of this prolongation of TE is due to the temporal summation of pulmonary stretch receptor (PSR) activity during expiratory loading. This hypothesis was tested in rabbits exposed to resistive and elastic single-breath expiratory loading while PSR's were simultaneously recorded. Both types of loads resulted in a decreased expired volume (VE) and increased expiratory duration (TE). The TE for resistive loads were significantly greater than for elastic loads for equivalent VE. Thus two different VE-TE relationships were found for resistive and elastic loads. When TE was plotted against the area under the expired volume trajectory, a single linear relationship was observed. PSR activity recorded during expiratory loading increased as VE decreased and TE increased. A single linear relationship resulted when the number of PSR spikes during the expiration was plotted against the associated TE for all types of loads. These findings demonstrate that the volume-related prolongation of TE with single-breath expiratory loads is associated with an increase in PSR discharge. These results support the hypothesis that the vagal component of load-dependent prolongation of TE is a function of both the temporal and spatial summation of PSR activity during the expiratory phase.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Effect of expiratory loading on expiratory duration and pulmonary stretch receptor discharge. option2: Light chain effects on alanine and glucose uptake by renal brush border membranes.
SOLUTION:
|
Effect of expiratory loading on expiratory duration and pulmonary stretch receptor discharge.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example Input: Abstract: Ex vivo renal artery surgery has been reported by several investigators and has extended the role of revascularization in the treatment of lesions previously managed by nephrectomy alone. Several techniques are available for use, and selection of the most appropriate method can be tailored to the specific anatomy being managed. Our total experience included 27 kidneys that have been managed by ex vivo renal artery reconstruction. Lesions managed in this manner include two kidneys with renal artery stenosis and renal tumors, one kidney with a congenital branch arteriovenous malformation, and 24 kidneys with branch occlusive or aneurysmal disease from fibromuscular dysplasia. Postoperative angiography was performed in 22 cases and defined successful revascularization without technical error in 20 cases. One operative death occurred as a result of myocardial infarction. One patient required reoperation to control bleeding, and two patients had temporary acute tubular necrosis during the postoperative period. Techniques employed included ex vivo repair with autotransplantation to the iliac system (six kidneys), mobilization and perfusion without transection of the renal vein (10 kidneys), and ex vivo perfusion and repair with replacement into the original renal fossa (11 kidneys). The authors believe this latter technique of reconstruction to be preferable to autotransplantation for the usual patient undergoing ex vivo repair of complex renovascular lesions.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Ex vivo renal artery reconstructions: indications and techniques. option2: Child restraint law effects on motor vehicle accident fatalities and injuries: the New Mexico experience.
Example Output: Ex vivo renal artery reconstructions: indications and techniques.
Example Input: Abstract: We have measured the increase in height and width of the vertebral bodies and expressed them as percentages of the total growth in children aged 10 to 17 years. The first group, 10 boys and 10 girls, each had a single thoracic adolescent idiopathic scoliosis while the second group, 10 girls, each had a single lumbar adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. No significant differences were found between the growth increments and spinal dimensions of the vertebral bodies involved in the scoliotic curve and those vertebrae outside the curve in the same patient. The vertebrae were more slender in girls than in boys.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Observations on the growth of the adolescent spine. option2: Internal mammary artery graft [letter]
Example Output: Observations on the growth of the adolescent spine.
Example Input: Abstract: This report describes the nuclear cardiology procedures available for use as diagnostic techniques in patients with definite or suspected cardiovascular disease. The usefulness of myocardial imaging, radionuclide angiocardiography and other radionuclide cardiovascular imaging techniques is classified within specific disease states. The clinical utility of each technique is graded from I to IV, depending on the clinical importance of the technique (I = most important; IV = not indicated). A grade of V is given for methods now considered to be in their research phase. The usefulness of these methods is discussed in patients with acute ischemic heart disease, chronic ischemic heart disease, valvular heart disease, pulmonary vascular disease and hypertensive heart disease. Selected references are provided.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Guidelines for Clinical Use of Cardiac Radionuclide Imaging, December 1986. A report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Assessment of Cardiovascular Procedures (Subcommittee on Nuclear Imaging). option2: Calcium carbonate as a phosphate binder [letter]
Example Output:
|
Guidelines for Clinical Use of Cardiac Radionuclide Imaging, December 1986. A report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Assessment of Cardiovascular Procedures (Subcommittee on Nuclear Imaging).
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example is below.
Q: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
A: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Rationale: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Q: Abstract: The authors report on the first case of signet-ring cell lymphoma involving the orbit. This variant of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma contains either vacuolated or eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that squeeze the nucleus to one side of the cell. In this case, the inclusions were eosinophilic and stained positively for PAS, immunoglobulin M (IgM) heavy chain and kappa light chain. Electron microscopy showed granular electron-dense material trapped within distended loops of rough endoplasmic reticulum. Twenty-two cases of signet-ring cell lymphoma previously reported elsewhere in the body are reviewed, and their clinical significance is discussed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Signet-ring cell lymphoma in the orbit: a case report and review. option2: A study of the human immune response to Lolium perenne (rye) pollen and its components, Lol p I and Lol p II (rye I and rye II). I. Prevalence of reactivity to the allergens and correlations among skin test, IgE antibody, and IgG antibody data.
A:
|
Signet-ring cell lymphoma in the orbit: a case report and review.
| 9
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given the task definition, example input & output, solve the new input case.
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Output: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
New input case for you: Abstract: Tissues acquired at autopsy from four patients with MS and biopsies from one patient with a probable diagnosis of MS were probed for the presence of OC43 RNA. This human coronavirus was not detected.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Probing for the human coronavirus OC43 in multiple sclerosis. option2: Major surgical procedures for gynecologic malignancy in elderly women.
Output:
|
Probing for the human coronavirus OC43 in multiple sclerosis.
| 1
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Abstract: Non-excretor cirrhotic patients, defined by their inability to normally excrete a standard water load, display variable responses to head-out water immersion. The hemodynamic, hormonal, and renal functional status of fifteen such patients were analyzed relative to water excretion during head-out water immersion. Group 1 patients (N = 7) all excreted less than 40% of the water load during immersion, whereas excretion was greater than 40% in all eight patients in Group 2. Group 1 patients, when compared with Group 2, had more ascites, more diuretic resistance, lower serum sodium concentration (125 +/- 2 vs. 130 +/- 1 mEq/liter, P less than 0.05), and more impaired baseline water excretion (12.9 +/- 1.2 vs. 35.9 +/- 5.9% of water load in 5 hr, P less than 0.005). Systemic hemodynamic responses to water immersion were similar in both groups. Glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow were significantly more impaired in Group 1 patients (inulin clearance 28 +/- 6 vs. 62 +/- 9 ml/min/1.73 m2, P less than 0.05; para-aminohippurate clearance 212 +/- 35 vs. 357 +/- 37 ml/min, P less than 0.05). Concentrations of plasma vasopressin (1.7 +/- 0.5 vs. 0.8 +/- 0.1 pg/ml, P less than 0.05), renin (8.6 +/- 1.7 vs. 3.8 +/- 0.9 ng/ml/hr, P less than 0.05), aldosterone (82 +/- 14 vs. 39 +/- 10 ng/dl, P less than 0.05) and norepinephrine (1155 +/- 183 vs. 603 +/- 126 pg/ml, P less than 0.05) were all significantly higher in Group 1 than Group 2 patients during water immersion.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Factors determining renal response to water immersion in non-excretor cirrhotic patients. option2: Primary amebic meningoencephalitis.
Factors determining renal response to water immersion in non-excretor cirrhotic patients.
Abstract: The acquired immune deficiency syndrome has presented a complex and, as yet, unsolvable spectrum of pulmonary disease characterized by bizarre infections, pneumothoraces, respiratory distress, and death. Thirty-eight patients underwent 49 surgical procedures during 42 months. Ages of the patients ranged from 24 to 56 years. Surgical procedures included tracheostomy, closure of air leaks, mediastinoscopy, lobectomy, open lung biopsy, and esophagogastrectomy. Hospital mortality was 10 of 38 (24%); the 1 year survival rate was 13 of 38 (34%). Pulmonary infections included Pneumocystis carinii, cytomegalovirus, Microbacterium avium, toxoplasmosis, candidiasis, and Cryptococcus neoformans. Open lung biopsy and surgical closure of air leaks can be accomplished safely with low morbidity. Tracheostomy and ventilatory support should be avoided at present in the majority of patients with this syndrome, as the mortality has been 100% when that stage of the disease is reached.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: The thoracic surgical spectrum of acquired immune deficiency syndrome. option2: Computerized liposuction [letter]
The thoracic surgical spectrum of acquired immune deficiency syndrome.
Abstract: An 87-year-old woman presented with the nephrotic syndrome 12 months after administration of ketoprofen, 100 mg daily for osteoarthritis. Clinical course and laboratory data were consistent with drug-induced nephropathy. Kidney biopsy showed membranous glomerulonephritis. Evolution was favorable with resolution of proteinuria after drug withdrawal and steroid administration. A review of the literature on nephrotic syndrome associated with NSAID reveals membranous glomerulonephritis to be an unusual complication.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Reversible membranous glomerulonephritis associated with ketoprofen. option2: Dilutional effect of increased sebaceous gland activity on the proportion of linoleic acid in sebaceous wax esters and in epidermal acylceramides.
|
Reversible membranous glomerulonephritis associated with ketoprofen.
| 0
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: Child sexual abuse is a common and potentially damaging experience. Preventing and detecting abuse should be a part of primary care pediatric practice. A protocol is presented the goal of which is to teach children and parents reasonable protective behaviors.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Developmental approach to preventing the sexual abuse of children. option2: Effects of age, gender and female sex hormones upon contractility of the human gallbladder in vitro.
Solution:
|
Developmental approach to preventing the sexual abuse of children.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example Input: Abstract: The patients at a state maximum security forensic facility were interviewed by a psychiatrist and their files reviewed. Only 43 of the 203 patients were judged to be suitable for the facility. Nearly 60% of the pretrial defendants were judged to be capable of proceeding to trial. Of the patients, 18% were judged to be malingering or avoiding trial or prison. The implications of these findings are discussed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: A consultant's survey of the patients in a maximum security hospital. option2: Microsurgical anatomy and operative approaches to the lateral ventricles.
Example Output: A consultant's survey of the patients in a maximum security hospital.
Example Input: Abstract: The kinetics of caffeine elimination were followed in a ten month old female acutely intoxicated on a street form of the drug. Urine drug screening by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry also showed the presence of ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, caffeine, theophylline and theobromine. Blood analyses using high pressure liquid chromatography gave evidence for the presence of theobromine, theophylline, caffeine and 1,7-dimethylxanthine. Sequentially taken blood samples determined that the initial stage of caffeine elimination was nonlinear. The Vmax = 27.6 micrograms/ml/hr and Km = 284.6 micrograms/ml. At a plasma level of approximately 30 micrograms/ml the elimination became first order with ke = 0.097 hr-1 and t 1/2 = 7.1 hr. The metabolic generation of theophylline and its elimination were also studied. Theophylline ke = 0.069 hr-1 and t 1/2 = 10.0 hr. Elimination of both drugs was anomalously long for a child of this age.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Toxicokinetics of caffeine elimination in an infant. option2: Sudden child death and 'healthy' affected family members with medium-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase deficiency.
Example Output: Toxicokinetics of caffeine elimination in an infant.
Example Input: Abstract: Child sexual abuse is a common and potentially damaging experience. Preventing and detecting abuse should be a part of primary care pediatric practice. A protocol is presented the goal of which is to teach children and parents reasonable protective behaviors.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Developmental approach to preventing the sexual abuse of children. option2: Effects of age, gender and female sex hormones upon contractility of the human gallbladder in vitro.
Example Output:
|
Developmental approach to preventing the sexual abuse of children.
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example is below.
Q: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
A: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Rationale: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Q: Abstract: Methotrexate (MTX) appears to be useful in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) refractory to other drugs but its long-term toxicity and efficacy are uncertain. A retrospective study of MTX in such patients in comparison with the purine analogues, azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine was made using life-table analysis. Eighty-four patients took MTX in a median dose of 7.5 mg/week whilst 55 received purine analogues, 100 mg/day (median). By 12 months, 19.3% of patients had ceased MTX due to toxicity, compared with 29.3% for purine analogues. Toxicity severe enough to warrant stopping therapy was uncommon after 8 months with either drug. At 12 months 61.5% of the MTX patients had achieved defined criteria of improvement compared with 25.6% for the purine analogues (p less than 0.05). The number of patients improving on purine analogues did not increase substantially after 6 months, whereas the number improving with MTX continued to 12 months. MTX in a low-dose regimen is useful in refractory RA and superior to low-dose purine analogues.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Comparison of methotrexate with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine in refractory rheumatoid arthritis: a life-table analysis. option2: Myocyte cell loss and myocyte hypertrophy in the aging rat heart.
A:
|
Comparison of methotrexate with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine in refractory rheumatoid arthritis: a life-table analysis.
| 9
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
--------
Question: Abstract: Patients with essential hypernatremia maintain urinary concentrating ability despite plasma hyperosmolality and low plasma vasopressin concentrations. We investigated renal sensitivity to ultralow dose vasopressin infusions in two patients with a syndrome of hypodipsia, hypernatremia with selective osmoreceptor dysfunction, early puberty, and aggressive behavior. The patients were water loaded until a hypotonic diuresis was established. Vasopressin was infused in stepwise increments from 0.4-12 fmol/kg X min. Both patients had increased renal sensitivity to vasopressin, achieving negative free water clearance at infusion rates of 0.4 and 4 fmol/kg X min (normal greater than or equal to 6). Treatment for 3 months with 1-desamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin (DDAVP) led to an improvement in behavior and the reporting, for the first time, of a sensation of thirst. After DDAVP therapy both patients had a reduction of their renal sensitivity to infused vasopressin. We conclude that untreated patients with essential hypernatremia have increased renal sensitivity to vasopressin which is reduced by DDAVP administration.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Increased renal sensitivity to vasopressin in two patients with essential hypernatremia. option2: AAEE minimonograph #25: Single-fiber electromyography in myasthenia gravis.
Answer: Increased renal sensitivity to vasopressin in two patients with essential hypernatremia.
Question: Abstract: To assess the best method of quantitating progression of coronary disease, we studied four measurements in 114 coronary segments from 35 medically treated patients from whom angiograms were obtained 5 years apart. Only stenoses of less than 70% that were visualized in nearly identical projections on both angiograms were evaluated. Vessel edges were measured by use of catheter calibration and an automated computer algorithm yielding two "absolute dimensions" (mean and minimum diameters) and two measurements (percent stenosis and atheroma area) that required a "normal reference" diameter. The coefficient of variation for repeated segment measurements was less for mean and minimum diameter than for percent stenosis and area of atheroma. The best measure of progression of coronary disease as determined by t test comparison of different methods was the change in mean diameter over time (6.7 +/- 14.1% decrease), whether calculated on a per coronary segment or per patient basis (p less than .001). Based on this measurement and its standard deviation of progression of coronary disease in this patient subset with relatively benign disease, it is estimated that 470 patients per group would be required for an interventional study to demonstrate a 33% reduction in disease progression (207 patients for 50% reduction) at a 95% confidence level and 90% power.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Optimal detection of the progression of coronary artery disease: comparison of methods suitable for risk factor intervention trials. option2: Congenital esophageal stenosis. Transendoscopic web incision.
Answer: Optimal detection of the progression of coronary artery disease: comparison of methods suitable for risk factor intervention trials.
Question: Abstract: Human IgG4 antibodies directed against phospholipase A, the P1 antigen from Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus extracts, and cat albumin were found unable to cross-link antigen. Previously, it was demonstrated that IgG4 antibodies, in contrast to IgG1 antibodies, did not cross-link Sepharose-bound antigen and antigen added in solution. To eliminate the possibility that this phenomenon was caused by preferential binding of both IgG4 Fab fragments to the solid-phase-bound antigen, cross-linking of antigen was studied in a fluid-phase system. In this test, incapability of IgG4 antibodies to bridge two antigens was also found. As a result of such a phenomenon, it is expected that immune complexes formed by IgG4 antibodies will be considerably smaller than complexes formed by IgG1. This was confirmed by analysis of the molecular size profiles of IgG1- and IgG4-containing immune complexes in sucrose-density gradients. Moreover, IgG1 was able to precipitate antigen in a radioimmunoprecipitation test, whereas precipitation was not demonstrable by the same amount of IgG4 antibodies. Even 3% polyethylene glycol 8,000 did not precipitate the small IgG4-containing immune complexes efficiently. The antibodies studied were of a high-affinity type, and there was no significant difference in association constants between IgG1 and IgG4 antibodies. Therefore, we were not able to confirm observations reported in the literature that the IgG4 subclass is associated with a low-affinity antibody response; probably, the affinity of the IgG4 antibodies was underestimated by other investigators because of the polyethylene glycol precipitation technique used to separate antibody-bound and free antigen. Our findings stress the point that IgG4 antibodies take a special place in the immune response upon chronic exposure to antigen.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Serologic aspects of IgG4 antibodies. II. IgG4 antibodies form small, nonprecipitating immune complexes due to functional monovalency. option2: 'Capture' of stereopsis by illusory contours [letter]
Answer:
|
Serologic aspects of IgG4 antibodies. II. IgG4 antibodies form small, nonprecipitating immune complexes due to functional monovalency.
| 7
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: Two men, aged 25 and 33 years, had progressive hemidystonia and an arteriovenous malformation (AVM) in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere. One patient with an AVM in the posterior basal ganglia of the right hemisphere had an older brother with severe generalized dystonia. The second patient had an AVM in the left cortical and subcortical parietal area with no obvious lesion in the basal ganglia. Unlike generalized dystonia, a focal lesion is commonly found in patients with unilateral dystonia. The association of AVM-induced hemidystonia and family history of dystonia suggests that genetic predisposition may be important in some patients with hemidystonia.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Arteriovenous malformation presenting as hemidystonia. option2: Bacteremia during bronchoalveolar lavage.
Solution:
|
Arteriovenous malformation presenting as hemidystonia.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Let me give you an example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
The answer to this example can be: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Here is why: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
OK. solve this:
Abstract: We have reported previously that in ovalbumin-sensitized canine tracheal smooth muscle (TSM) the maximum ability to shorten is increased. This could account for the increased airway narrowing seen in vivo in allergic bronchoconstriction. It was associated with increased velocity of shortening. We now report that, by using an electromagnetic muscle lever system, quick releases were applied to control and sensitized TSM at 0.5-s intervals throughout the course of a lightly preloaded 10-s isotonic contraction. From the records obtained it is possible to determine that, early in contraction, shortening is brought about by relatively rapidly cycling [0.35 optimal muscle length units +/- 0.033/s (SE)] cross bridges. We also report that in the sensitized TSM it is the early bridges that increase their velocity by 26.6% (P less than 0.05) compared with similar bridges in muscles from control animals. Since 70% of the maximum shortening of the muscle occurs when early bridges are operative, it is likely that these bridges are responsible for the major part of the shortening. It is thus probable that increased allergic bronchoconstriction is produced by increased activity of early, rapidly cycling bridges. The bridges that are active late in the shortening show no difference between control and sensitized airway smooth muscles.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Changes in cross-bridge properties of sensitized airway smooth muscle. option2: The influence of immunity on raw milk--associated Campylobacter infection.
Answer:
|
Changes in cross-bridge properties of sensitized airway smooth muscle.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
[EX Q]: Abstract: This article describes the circumstances of the diagnosis of three of a group of 12 high-functioning multiple personality disorder patients. All had performed major social and professional activities with consistent competence, and all appeared to be neurotic patients suitable for classical psychoanalysis. All 12 had been misdiagnosed on at least three occasions before the correct diagnosis was made. Aspects of the difficulties encountered in assessing these patients are discussed and guidelines for the preservation of their high level of function during the treatment process are offered.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: High-functioning multiple personality patients. Three cases. option2: Reactive gliosis simulating butterfly glioma: a neuroradiological case study.
[EX A]: High-functioning multiple personality patients. Three cases.
[EX Q]: Abstract: After initiation of ibuprofen therapy, a 45-year-old woman developed muscle weakness and tenderness with rhabdomyolysis, culminating in respiratory failure. A muscle biopsy specimen showed a vacuolar myopathy, and markedly decreased muscle carnitine content and carnitine palmitoyltransferase activity. Following recovery, muscle carnitine content was normal but carnitine palmitoyltransferase activity was still abnormally low. The ratio of palmitoyl-coenzyme A plus carnitine to palmitoylcarnitine oxidation by muscle mitochondria isolated from the patient was markedly decreased. We conclude that transiently decreased muscle carnitine content interacted with partial deficiency of carnitine palmitoyltransferase-A to produce rhabdomyolysis and respiratory failure and that ibuprofen may have precipitated the clinical event.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Partial muscle carnitine palmitoyltransferase-A deficiency. Rhabdomyolysis associated with transiently decreased muscle carnitine content after ibuprofen therapy. option2: Use of thermogram in detection of meningitis.
[EX A]: Partial muscle carnitine palmitoyltransferase-A deficiency. Rhabdomyolysis associated with transiently decreased muscle carnitine content after ibuprofen therapy.
[EX Q]: Abstract: In an attempt to improve speech results following palate repair while allowing adequate maxillary growth, a palatoplasty using two opposing Z-plasties of the soft palate, one of the oral and one of the nasal layers, has been used in 22 infants. Eight patients had unilateral cleft lip and palate, eight had bilateral cleft lip and palate, and six had cleft palate. The Z-plasties facilitate effective dissection and redirection of the palatal muscles to produce an overlapping muscle sling and lengthen the velum without using tissue from the hard palate, which permits hard palate closure without pushback or lateral relaxing incisions. Of the 20 children old enough for speech evaluation, 18 have no velopharyngeal insufficiency. Two have very mild velopharyngeal insufficiency. None has required a pharyngeal flap.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Cleft palate repair by double opposing Z-plasty. option2: Primary pigmented nodular adrenocortical disease: diagnosis and management.
[EX A]:
|
Cleft palate repair by double opposing Z-plasty.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: The Inyo nail is a new intramedullary device for the treatment of fractures of the distal fibula. It is a tapered V-shaped nail made of malleable stainless steel, which provides rigid fracture fixation. Torsional stress is resisted because of its triflanged shape. It may be introduced closed, using the image intensifier. Two groups of patients were evaluated: Group I was treated with the Inyo nail and Group II was treated by the Association For the Study of Internal Fixation (ASIF) technique. Eighty-five percent of the patients in Group I were rated as good, compared with 63% in Group II. There was significantly less morbidity and complications in Group I. Several factors must be observed in the treatment of ankle fractures. Stress radiographs must be obtained intraoperative. Surgery may be indicated in unstable supination lateral rotation Type II injuries, if these occur in patients with high physical demands. Anatomic reduction of the lateral malleolus must be obtained. Early weight-bearing and motion produces the best result. Late reconstruction of malunions can be accomplished using the Inyo nail.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: A new approach to the treatment of ankle fractures. The Inyo nail. option2: Spin labeling study on membrane fluidity of epidermal cell (cow snout epidermis).
Solution:
|
A new approach to the treatment of ankle fractures. The Inyo nail.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Detailed Instructions: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
See one example below:
Problem: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Problem: Abstract: Allergy to potato is uncommon, and even more uncommon is allergy to potato pollen. The occurrence of both phenomena in the same patient made it possible to study cross-reactivity patterns of potato antigens. An 11-year-old girl, exclusively breast-fed for her first 4 months, developed anaphylactic symptoms after ingestion of potato at 5 months of age when she was fed potato for the first time. Subsequently, she developed urticaria, angioedema, and respiratory and systemic symptoms on contact with potatoes, ingestion of potatoes, and exposure to cooking potatoes or potato pollen. Three allergenic extracts from potato pulp, peel, and pollen were prepared. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate and isoelectrofocusing of the three extracts were performed. IgE-mediated allergy to these extracts was demonstrated by means of immediate skin test reactivity, positive passive transfer, RAST, RAST inhibition, and leukocyte histamine release. Sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of the pulp extract followed by electroblotting and autoradiography demonstrated specific IgE antibodies directed against several proteins ranging from 14,000 to 40,000 daltons.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Allergy to white potato. option2: Occam and mankind's genetic bottleneck [letter]
Solution:
|
Allergy to white potato.
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
instruction:
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
question:
Abstract: The pharmacokinetics of atracurium were studied in infants and children anaesthetized with isoflurane and nitrous oxide in oxygen. There were no significant differences in volume of distribution (area) (139 v. 152 ml kg-1), clearance (5.1 v. 5.3 ml kg-1 min-1), T1/2 alpha (2.1 v. 2.0 min), or T1/2 beta (19.1 v. 20.3 min) between children with normal hepatic and renal function and those with moderately impaired hepatic function presenting for hepatic transplantation. There were significant differences in volume of distribution (area) (176 v. 139 ml kg-1) and in clearance of atracurium (9.1 v. 5.1 ml kg-1 min-1) between infants and children with normal excretory function. In infants the clearance of atracurium in ml m-2 min-1 (153 v. 133) tended to be greater and the T1/2 alpha and T1/2 beta tended to be shorter (1.0 v. 2.0 and 13.6 v. 19.1) than in children with normal excretory function; however, these trends did not reach statistical significance. Plasma laudanosine concentration was around 100 ng ml-1 greater in patients with liver disease than in normal children from 15-45 min following a bolus of atracurium 0.5 mg kg-1.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Pharmacokinetics of atracurium in anaesthetized infants and children. option2: Treatment of early latent syphilis under 1 year's duration: serologic response to treatment of 368 patients.
answer:
Pharmacokinetics of atracurium in anaesthetized infants and children.
question:
Abstract: Five patients with Kaposi's sarcoma seen and treated at the Louisiana State University Medical Center in Shreveport from 1970 to 1984 are presented. A complete response was observed in two patients who received extended-field irradiation. Results obtained with external beam radiotherapy for this disease from other reported patients series are summarized.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Kaposi's sarcoma: report of five cases treated with radiotherapy. option2: Remodeling of the temporomandibular joint disk and posterior attachment in disk displacement specimens in relation to glycosaminoglycan content.
answer:
Kaposi's sarcoma: report of five cases treated with radiotherapy.
question:
Abstract: Allergy to potato is uncommon, and even more uncommon is allergy to potato pollen. The occurrence of both phenomena in the same patient made it possible to study cross-reactivity patterns of potato antigens. An 11-year-old girl, exclusively breast-fed for her first 4 months, developed anaphylactic symptoms after ingestion of potato at 5 months of age when she was fed potato for the first time. Subsequently, she developed urticaria, angioedema, and respiratory and systemic symptoms on contact with potatoes, ingestion of potatoes, and exposure to cooking potatoes or potato pollen. Three allergenic extracts from potato pulp, peel, and pollen were prepared. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate and isoelectrofocusing of the three extracts were performed. IgE-mediated allergy to these extracts was demonstrated by means of immediate skin test reactivity, positive passive transfer, RAST, RAST inhibition, and leukocyte histamine release. Sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of the pulp extract followed by electroblotting and autoradiography demonstrated specific IgE antibodies directed against several proteins ranging from 14,000 to 40,000 daltons.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Allergy to white potato. option2: Occam and mankind's genetic bottleneck [letter]
answer:
|
Allergy to white potato.
| 9
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: Physiological concentrations of L-T4 were found previously to stimulate Ca2+-ATPase activity in vitro in reticulocyte membranes from female rabbits and to inhibit this enzyme in reticulocyte membranes from males. In these previous studies, preincubation of intact cells or ghosts with testosterone (5 X 10(-11) M) converted female-source reticulocyte membranes to male-type responsiveness to thyroid hormone (inhibition of Ca2+-ATPase activity). Preincubation of reticulocyte membranes with 17 beta-estradiol (5 X 10(-11) M) converted male-source membranes to female-type responsiveness (stimulation by L-T4 of membrane Ca2+-ATPase activity). Using this sex steroid-sensitive thyroid hormone-dependent membrane enzyme system, we investigated the structure-activity relationships of analogs of sex steroids and unrelated steroids. 5 beta-Androstanes were active compared to testosterone in assays using female-source membranes, while 5 alpha-androstanes were less active. Within the 5 beta-androstanes, activity was dependent on at least one hydroxyl group at the C3- or C17-position. Nongonadal steroids tested were less active, establishing specificity of the sex steroid effect in assays using female-source membranes. Assayed in male-source membranes, estrone and 3-hydroxy-1,3,5-(10)7-estratraen-17-one (equilin) were active compared for estrogen effect with 17 beta-estradiol, while estriol was less active. The activities of hydrocortisone and aldosterone were 76% and 71%, respectively, in this system. These structure-activity relationships are distinct from those described for gonadal steroid-cytoplasmic binding proteins or nuclear interactions, and represent a novel sex steroid-thyroid hormone effect on activity of a membrane enzyme.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Structure-activity relationships of sex steroid analogs determined in vitro in a thyroid hormone-responsive membrane Ca2+-ATPase model. option2: The significance of unruptured intracranial saccular aneurysms.
Solution:
|
Structure-activity relationships of sex steroid analogs determined in vitro in a thyroid hormone-responsive membrane Ca2+-ATPase model.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Abstract: A 4 1/2-month-old, white girl was admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress and persistent polymicrobial bacteremia. Cystic fibrosis associated with malnutrition and a transient defect in peripheral neutrophil chemotaxis was diagnosed. This remarkable combination of presenting features in a patient with cystic fibrosis is the focus of this case report.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Polymicrobial bacterial sepsis and defective neutrophil chemotaxis in an infant with cystic fibrosis. option2: Short latency somatosensory-evoked potentials in children--Part 3. Findings following head injury.
Polymicrobial bacterial sepsis and defective neutrophil chemotaxis in an infant with cystic fibrosis.
Abstract: A [99mTc]RBC study in a 63-yr-old man showed intrahepatic lesions which initially had less activity than surrounding liver tissue. When viewed 3 hr later, these had "reversed" and the lesions revealed increased uptake of the radiolabeled red cells. Some extrahepatic areas showed the same pattern (these were in the mesentery of the small bowel). The lesions proved to be angiosarcomas. Hence, the behavior of labeled red cells in these angiosarcomas mimicked that in benign hemangiomas.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Hepatic angiosarcoma: mimicking of angioma on three-phase technetium-99m red blood cell scintigraphy. option2: Is the corneal posterior cell layer truly endothelial?
Hepatic angiosarcoma: mimicking of angioma on three-phase technetium-99m red blood cell scintigraphy.
Abstract: The Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS) in humans has a number of similarities to the immunodeficiencies found in CBA/N mice, including X-chromosome-linked inheritance, inability to produce antibodies to various carbohydrate antigens, susceptibility to various bacterial infections, and an imbalance in B lymphocyte subpopulations. Moreover, in both man and mice, IgG antibodies to polysaccharides are predominantly, but not exclusively, restricted to a single IgG subclass--IgG2 in man, and IgG3 in the mouse. Because CBA/N mice have a deficiency of IgG3 antibodies and because human IgG2 subclass deficiencies have been generally associated with inability to produce antibodies to carbohydrate antigens, it would seem likely that patients with WAS would have greatly reduced levels of IgG2. Quite to the contrary, the data presented here demonstrate that WAS patients have normal levels of the different IgG subclasses, including IgG2. Thus, inability to produce antibodies to carbohydrates is not always associated with IgG2 subclass deficiency.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome have normal IgG2 levels. option2: The structure of beta-lactoglobulin and its similarity to plasma retinol-binding protein.
|
Patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome have normal IgG2 levels.
| 0
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: This article reviews the results of studies using electromyographic recordings to determine muscle function during athletic activities. Electromyographic recordings were synchronized with high-speed film to provide information on shoulder muscle firing patterns during baseball pitching, swimming, tennis, and golf. The information obtained about the contributions of specific muscles during these activities may be useful in developing effective injury prevention and rehabilitation strategies.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Electromyography and motion analysis of the upper extremity in sports. option2: Adrenocortical carcinoma.
Solution:
|
Electromyography and motion analysis of the upper extremity in sports.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Let me give you an example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
The answer to this example can be: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Here is why: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
OK. solve this:
Abstract: Dermatitis from 2-chloromethyl-4-phenyl-6-chloroquinazoline-3-oxide, an intermediate product in the preparation of chlorodiazepoxide, is described in 29 workers at a pharmaceutical plant. All were patch test positive to quinazoline oxide (1%) and six to 0.05%. In most patients, the face was earlier and more severely involved than the hands. Some were sensitized even if they did not have much contact with it, doing such work as washing the clothing of other workers, or working at a distance of 100 m from the production line building.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Dermatitis from quinazoline oxide. option2: Catecholamines in the vitreous fluid and urine of guinea pigs dying of cold and the effect of postmortem freezing and autolysis.
Answer:
|
Dermatitis from quinazoline oxide.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example input: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Example output: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Example explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Q: Abstract: Three myopic patients who wore soft contact lenses developed unilateral Acanthamoeba keratitis that presented with unusual infiltrates that appeared to be located along the corneal nerves. These infiltrates were found in the midstroma, beginning paracentrally, and extending to the limbus in a radial pattern. The epithelium overlying these infiltrates was intact. In two patients, the central epithelium had a stippled, almost dendritiform appearance leading to the misdiagnosis of herpes simplex keratitis. Cultures from corneal scrapings of two patients and cultures of a corneal biopsy from one patient, which included an area of presumed neural involvement, grew Acanthamoebae. All three patients used homemade saline solutions (salt tablets dissolved in distilled water). In one patient, Acanthamoebae were found in the contact lens case solution. In our recent experience, Acanthamoebae have also been found in the distilled water bottle and the saline solution made from distilled water and salt tablets in two additional patients with A. keratitis. Distilled water, which is not sterile, has proven to be one potentially avoidable source of A. keratitis in contact lens wearers.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Radial keratoneuritis as a presenting sign in Acanthamoeba keratitis. option2: Synovial sarcoma of the thoracic spine. A case report.
A:
|
Radial keratoneuritis as a presenting sign in Acanthamoeba keratitis.
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Part 1. Definition
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Part 2. Example
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Answer: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Part 3. Exercise
Abstract: Drinking red wine may provoke bronchospasm in subjects with asthma. In order to reveal some of the possible agents involved in this reaction, 18 patients with a history of red wine-induced asthma were studied. They received, in a double-blind fashion, red wine with low sulfur dioxide (SO2) and high amine, high SO2 and high amine and low SO2 and low amine content. In each challenge, the wine was administered in stepwise increasing quantities until a total of 385 ml or a fall in peak expiratory flow of greater than 15% was reached. Nine subjects demonstrated a significant fall in peak flow in one or more challenges. In all cases the most severe reaction was observed after the wine with high SO2 content. The study suggests that SO2 is the most important factor in red wine-induced asthma. It is recommended that wine labels provide information on the SO2 content.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Red wine asthma: a controlled challenge study. option2: Radioactive fallout swipe samples from Chernobyl [letter]
Answer:
|
Red wine asthma: a controlled challenge study.
| 7
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
[Q]: Abstract: Sex steroids have been shown to have a marked effect on the physiologic activities of the liver and the gastrointestinal tract. We performed autoradiographic studies using [3H]estradiol and [3H]dihydrotestosterone on male and female baboons for the purpose of identifying estrogen or androgen receptors, or both, in the liver, pancreas, stomach, and small and large intestines of baboons. Evidence for the presence of estrogen and androgen receptors was made apparent by high concentrations of silver grains over the nuclei of the cells of these tissues. Androgen receptors were largely confined to the nuclei of the smooth muscle cells of the tunica muscularis of the gut wall and the connective tissue interstitial cells of the liver, pancreas, stomach, and intestines. Estrogen receptors were prominent in the nuclei of the vascular smooth muscle cells in the liver, pancreas, gut, and the majority of the endocrine islet cells. These observations suggest that a variety of different cell types of the liver, pancreas, and gastrointestinal tract contain estrogen and androgen receptors that might modulate their cellular activities and influence several different physiologic processes.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Sex steroid receptors in the stomach, liver, pancreas, and gastrointestinal tract of the baboon. option2: Tuberculous aortitis with associated necrosis and perforation: treatment and options.
[A]: Sex steroid receptors in the stomach, liver, pancreas, and gastrointestinal tract of the baboon.
[Q]: Abstract: This report reviews 833 patients who underwent internal mammary artery grafting alone or with vein grafts between 1968 and 1981. Use of the internal mammary artery was indicated in young or middle-aged patients with the following characteristics: a significant lesion of the proximal left anterior descending artery or its diagonal branch alone (70.1%) or combined with diffuse atherosclerosis (19.9%) or a small caliber (3.4%); absent or unsuitable veins for grafting (5.5%); atherosclerosis or an aneurysm of the ascending aorta (0.6%); and failure of previous vein grafts (0.5%). The left anterior descending artery system was grafted by the left internal mammary artery in 53.2%, and the arterial graft was complimented by vein grafts in 2.6%. In 45.2% of the patients, grafts of the left anterior descending artery by the left internal mammary artery were supplemented by vein grafts to the right coronary artery (23.8%), to the circumflex artery (15.2%), or to both (6.2%). The overall operative mortality was 2.2%. It rose to 16.7% with associated cardiac procedures and to 18.5% in patients who were in New York Heart Association Class IV. If these two high-risk categories of patients are excluded, the perioperative death rate in the remaining 750 was only 0.4%. Of the 815 patients who survived the perioperative period (mean 53.1 months follow-up), 63.1% were relieved of angina and 83.4% were in Class I or II of the New York Heart Association, as compared to 27.4% before the operation. At cardiac recatheterization (mean 18.9 months), 87.9% of the internal mammary artery grafts and 63.3% of the vein grafts were patent (p less than 0.05). The cumulative actuarial 10 year survival rate was 88.6% +/- 1.3%.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Internal mammary artery grafting. Clinical results, patency rates, and long-term survival in 833 patients. option2: An inexpensive wire passer.
[A]: Internal mammary artery grafting. Clinical results, patency rates, and long-term survival in 833 patients.
[Q]: Abstract: We analyzed the data on 15,438 consecutive medical inpatients monitored by the Boston Collaborative Drug Surveillance Program from June 1975 to June 1982 to determine the rates of allergic cutaneous reactions to drugs introduced since 1975 and to confirm and extend findings from an earlier study of the preceding 22,227 patients. There were 358 reactions occurring in 347 patients, for an overall reaction rate among patients of 2.2%. Each patient received a mean of eight different drugs. Rashes were attributed to 51 drugs, and 75% of the allergic cutaneous reactions were attributed to antibiotics, blood products, and inhaled mucolytics. Amoxicillin (51.4 reactions per 1000 patients exposed), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (33.8/1000), and ampicillin (33.2/1000) had the highest reaction rates. Drug-specific reaction rates ranged from zero to 51.4 per 1000 and were determined for 180 drugs or drug groups. These results provide physicians with quantitative data that will be helpful in clinical decision making when drug-induced exanthems, urticaria, or generalized pruritus occurs.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Drug-induced cutaneous reactions. A report from the Boston Collaborative Drug Surveillance Program on 15,438 consecutive inpatients, 1975 to 1982. option2: Super effective diaper can cause confusion [letter]
[A]:
|
Drug-induced cutaneous reactions. A report from the Boston Collaborative Drug Surveillance Program on 15,438 consecutive inpatients, 1975 to 1982.
| 5
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Q: Abstract: Physical activity has been associated with reduced risk of coronary heart disease. A mechanism for the reduced risk may be through increased high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) and subfractions, in particular HDL2-C. Research associated with increased physical activity investigating HLD-C have assessed the effects of intense aerobic activity. The current research evaluated the relationship between low intensity, long duration activity to HDL-C and subfractions in 35 active postal carriers. Measurements of physical activity via the Large Scale Integrated monitor and reported miles walked, and lipoproteins were assessed at 3-month intervals over a 1-year period. Reported miles walked/day (5.3) was significantly correlated with HLD2-C (r = 0.50, P = 0.003) and approached significance for HDL-C (r = 0.29, P = 0.06). The Large Scale Integrated measures were correlated with HDL-C (r = 0.44, P = 0.008) and HDL2-C (r = 0.44, P = 0.007). Controlling for either age, alcohol consumption, body mass index, or leisure time activity did not reduce the relationship between reported miles walked or Large Scale Integrated readings and HDL2-C, suggesting that the increased HDL-C was the result of long duration, low intensity physical activity.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Chronic low level physical activity as a determinant of high density lipoprotein cholesterol and subfractions. option2: Levotransposition of the aorta: identification of segmental cardiac anatomy using MR imaging.
A: Chronic low level physical activity as a determinant of high density lipoprotein cholesterol and subfractions.
****
Q: Abstract: Rat liver microsomal insulin-like growth factor-II (IGF-II) receptor has been purified to homogeneity using a single step affinity chromatographic procedure on agarose-IGF-II with elution at pH 4. Determined by either IGF-II binding or a direct RIA for receptor, purification of 2000-fold was obtained. The mean recovery was 28% for five such preparations. Sodium dodecyl sulfate-electrophoresis and autoradiography of purified receptor, radioiodinated receptor, and affinity-labeled receptor all indicated a molecular mass of approximately 250K. Scatchard analysis of IGF-II binding to purified receptor, solubilized microsomal membranes, or plasma membranes showed a single class of binding site with an affinity constant of 6 X 10(10) liter/mol in all cases. Potent antibodies to the purified receptor were raised in rabbits, capable of inhibiting 50% of IGF-II binding at dilutions of 1:170,000 and also of fully precipitating IGF-II-prelabeled receptor at 1:50,000. Both types of antibodies reacted with IGF-II receptors in rat adipose tissue, brain, heart, kidney, lung, and spleen. However, little cross-reactivity was seen with other species. Comparison of the ability of receptor antibodies to inhibit IGF-II binding to microsomal and plasma membranes indicated a specific immunological difference between the IGF-II receptors in the two membrane preparations.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Purification and immunological characterization of the rat liver insulin-like growth factor-II receptor. option2: Temporoparietal craniopagus. Case report and review of the literature.
A: Purification and immunological characterization of the rat liver insulin-like growth factor-II receptor.
****
Q: Abstract: The alternative or classical pathways for complement system component C3 may be triggered by microorganisms and antigen-antibody complexes. In particular, an activated fragment of C3, C3b, covalently attaches to microorganisms or antigen-antibody complexes, which in turn bind to the C3b receptor, also known as complement receptor 1. The genes encoding the proteins that constitute the C3-activating enzymes have been cloned and mapped to a "complement activation" locus in the major histocompatibility complex, and we demonstrate in this study such a locus on the long arm of chromosome 1 at band 1q32.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: A complement receptor locus: genes encoding C3b/C4b receptor and C3d/Epstein-Barr virus receptor map to 1q32. option2: Endfeet of retinal glial cells have higher densities of ion channels that mediate K+ buffering.
A:
|
A complement receptor locus: genes encoding C3b/C4b receptor and C3d/Epstein-Barr virus receptor map to 1q32.
****
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Detailed Instructions: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
See one example below:
Problem: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Problem: Abstract: The surgical anatomy of a transtemporal approach to the structures of the clivus was defined with the aid of dissections in 10 cadaver heads. The steps in the dissection consisted of first exposing the cervical internal carotid artery (ICA), the internal jugular vein, and the caudal cranial nerves, each at the skull base; then performing small retromastoid and temporal craniotomies; and, finally, drilling away the petrous and tympanic bone to expose the intratemporal parts of the facial nerve, the petrous ICA, the sigmoid sinus, and the jugular bulb. To expose the structures of the lower clivus, the sigmoid sinus was ligated and divided, the facial nerve was displaced anterosuperiorly, and the inner ear structures were preserved. Dural opening exposed the anterolateral and anterior surfaces of the medulla, the pontomedullary junction, and the spinomedullary junction. The ipsilateral vertebral artery and often the contralateral vertebral artery and the vertebrobasilar junction, the caudal cranial nerves, and the origin of the 6th, 7th, and 8th cranial nerves were well exposed. To expose the structures of the middle clivus, we drilled away the labyrinth, the cochlea, and a portion of the clival bone. The facial nerve was displaced posteroinferiorly. Dural opening exposed the ipsilateral anterior surface of the pons, the midbasilar artery, and the ipsilateral 5th, 6th, 7th, and 8th cranial nerves. A portion of the contralateral anterior surface of the pons was also exposed at times. The superior limit of this exposure was just above the origin of the trigeminal nerve. The exposure of the upper clival structures was limited with this approach, and required medial temporal lobe retraction. Two case reports are included to illustrate the application of the transtemporal approach to the exposure and clipping of aneurysms of the vertebrobasilar system. The advantages and disadvantages of this approach are discussed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Transtemporal approach to the skull base: an anatomical study. option2: "Friends" dance for Library of Medicine [news]
Solution:
|
Transtemporal approach to the skull base: an anatomical study.
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Ex Input:
Abstract: We did complete histologic study on 148 gravid tubes and found that nearly 90% showed chronic lesions. CS was the most frequent lesion encountered (95.5%), followed by SIN (32.6%). Most frequently the lesions were extensive and both the ampulla and isthmus were involved. We therefore question the conservative approach in the treatment of certain TPs.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Tubal causes of ectopic pregnancy. option2: AAMC longitudinal study of 1960 medical school graduates: a 20-year effort in 28 schools, 1956-1976 [editorial]
Ex Output:
Tubal causes of ectopic pregnancy.
Ex Input:
Abstract: The equipment used for the first sampling of arterial blood at depth on free-diving Weddell seals Leptonychotes weddelli is described. Blood was withdrawn through an aortic catheter by a submersible, peristaltic roller pump and stored in a single- or multiple-sample collection device. The multiple sampler allowed up to eight individual blood samples to be collected during a single dive. The blood pump was controlled by a dedicated microcomputer that allowed initiation of blood sampling at flexible combinations of depth and/or time during either the descending or ascending phase of the dive. The dedicated microcomputer also recorded swimming depth, velocity, heart rate, and body temperature at selectable time intervals. These data were transmitted to a laboratory computer, and blood samples were retrieved, when the seal surfaced to breathe.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Microcomputer monitor and blood sampler for free-diving Weddell seals. option2: Discussion, ideas abound in migraine research; consensus remains elusive [news]
Ex Output:
Microcomputer monitor and blood sampler for free-diving Weddell seals.
Ex Input:
Abstract: The gall bladder mucosa is composed of neutral mucopolysaccharide and protein radical containing secretory cells, protein radical containing migratory cells, and neutral and acid mucopolysaccharides plus sialic acid containing goblet cells. The prognostic significance of histologic or histochemical parameters in gall bladder adenocarcinoma (GBA) are unknown. To determine if histochemical acid mucopolysaccharide content in GBA has prognostic value, GBA histologic sections from 26 advanced stage disease patients participating in Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) treatment study EST-2273 were stained with alcian blue at pH. 1.0, assessed by a pathology panel for either high (greater than 50%) or low (less than 50%) acid mucopolysaccharide content, and correlated with patient survival. Initial panel unanimous concurrence rate on acid mucopolysaccharide content was 88.9%. Median survival times from the start of chemotherapy to date of death for high acid mucopolysaccharide content GBA was 14 weeks versus five weeks for the low content GBA (P less than 0.0001). The results indicate that high acid mucopolysaccharide content in GBA significantly improves prognosis. ECOG recommends stratification by acid mucopolysaccharide content in future GBA treatment investigations.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Gallbladder adenocarcinoma: prognostic significance of tumor acid mucopolysaccharide content. option2: Electromyography and motion analysis of the upper extremity in sports.
Ex Output:
|
Gallbladder adenocarcinoma: prognostic significance of tumor acid mucopolysaccharide content.
| 1
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example input: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Example output: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Example explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Q: Abstract: The gall bladder mucosa is composed of neutral mucopolysaccharide and protein radical containing secretory cells, protein radical containing migratory cells, and neutral and acid mucopolysaccharides plus sialic acid containing goblet cells. The prognostic significance of histologic or histochemical parameters in gall bladder adenocarcinoma (GBA) are unknown. To determine if histochemical acid mucopolysaccharide content in GBA has prognostic value, GBA histologic sections from 26 advanced stage disease patients participating in Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) treatment study EST-2273 were stained with alcian blue at pH. 1.0, assessed by a pathology panel for either high (greater than 50%) or low (less than 50%) acid mucopolysaccharide content, and correlated with patient survival. Initial panel unanimous concurrence rate on acid mucopolysaccharide content was 88.9%. Median survival times from the start of chemotherapy to date of death for high acid mucopolysaccharide content GBA was 14 weeks versus five weeks for the low content GBA (P less than 0.0001). The results indicate that high acid mucopolysaccharide content in GBA significantly improves prognosis. ECOG recommends stratification by acid mucopolysaccharide content in future GBA treatment investigations.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Gallbladder adenocarcinoma: prognostic significance of tumor acid mucopolysaccharide content. option2: Electromyography and motion analysis of the upper extremity in sports.
A:
|
Gallbladder adenocarcinoma: prognostic significance of tumor acid mucopolysaccharide content.
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Part 1. Definition
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Part 2. Example
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Answer: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Part 3. Exercise
Abstract: Recurrent pulmonary embolism from the lower extremities or pelvis, despite anticoagulation, often requires interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC). We report two patients in whom interruption of the IVC failed to ameliorate symptoms. Both patients demonstrated a previously unrecognized duplication of the IVC. We stress the importance of excluding abdominal venous anomalies prior to interrupting the IVC using surgical or percutaneous methods.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Duplication of the inferior vena cava in thromboembolic disease. option2: Pulse oximetry during cardiac catheterization in children with congenital heart disease.
Answer:
|
Duplication of the inferior vena cava in thromboembolic disease.
| 7
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Detailed Instructions: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
See one example below:
Problem: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Problem: Abstract: Active forms of vitamin D3, 1 alpha-hydroxyvitamin D3 and 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3, were administered in an open-design study to 40 patients with psoriasis vulgaris in three ways: to 17 patients 1 alpha-hydroxyvitamin D3 was given orally at a dose of 1.0 micrograms/day for 6 months, to four patients 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 was given orally at a dose of 0.5 microgram/day for 6 months, and 19 patients were given 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 applied topically at concentration of 0.5 microgram/g of base for 8 weeks. Improvement was observed at the end of the individual study periods in 13 (76%) patients in Group 1 with a mean period of treatment (+/- SD) of 2.7 +/- 0.6 months, in one patient in Group 2 at 3 months after the start of treatment, and in 16 (84%) patients in Group 3 when the chemical was applied for 3.3 +/- 1.2 weeks. No side-effects were observed in any of these trials. These data suggest that psoriasis may respond to active metabolites of vitamin D3 and that abnormalities in vitamin D metabolism or in responsiveness of the skin cells to active metabolites of vitamin D may be involved in the pathogenesis of this skin disease.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: An open study of vitamin D3 treatment in psoriasis vulgaris. option2: Malignant blue nevus [letter]
Solution:
|
An open study of vitamin D3 treatment in psoriasis vulgaris.
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
[Q]: Abstract: Pulmonary lymph drains into the thoracic duct and then into the systemic venous circulation. Since systemic venous pressure (SVP) must be overcome before pulmonary lymph can flow, variations in SVP may affect lymph flow rate and therefore the rate of fluid accumulation within the lung. The importance of this issue is evident when one considers the variety of clinical interventions that increase SVP and promote pulmonary edema formation, such as volume infusion, positive-pressure ventilation, and various vasoactive drug therapies. We recorded pulmonary arterial pressure (PAP), left atrial pressure (LAP), and SVP in chronic unanesthetized sheep. Occlusion balloons were placed in the left atrium and superior vena cava to control their respective pressures. The superior vena caval occluder was placed above the azygos vein so that bronchial venous pressure would not be elevated when the balloon was inflated. Three-hour experiments were carried out at various LAP levels with and without SVP being elevated to 20 mmHg. The amount of fluid present in the lung was determined by the wet-to-dry weight ratio method. At control LAP levels, no significant difference in lung fluid accumulation could be shown between animals with control and elevated SVP levels. When LAP was elevated above control a significantly greater amount of pulmonary fluid accumulated in animals with elevated SVP levels compared with those with control SVP levels. We conclude that significant excess pulmonary edema formation will occur when SVP is elevated at pulmonary microvascular pressures not normally associated with rapid fluid accumulation.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Effect of systemic venous pressure elevation on lymph flow and lung edema formation. option2: Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis and bone.
[A]: Effect of systemic venous pressure elevation on lymph flow and lung edema formation.
[Q]: Abstract: Thrombospondin with fibrinogen, fibronectin, and von Willebrand factor binds to platelets stimulated with agonists and support platelet adhesive functions. The receptors for the latter three proteins are associated with membrane glycoprotein GPIIb-IIIa. Thrombasthenic platelets deficient in GPIIb-IIIa have been utilized to examine the role of this membrane protein in the interactions of thrombospondin with platelets. Radioiodinated thrombospondin bound to thrombin-stimulated platelets from normal and thrombasthenic donors with a similar affinity and capacity. As monitored with a monoclonal antibody to thrombospondin, the divalent ion-dependent and -independent pathways for the expression of the endogenous pool of thrombospondin on the surface of thrombin-stimulated platelets from normal and thrombasthenic donors were also qualitatively and quantitatively similar. GPIIb-IIIa or ligands associated with GPIIb-IIIa thus are not essential for the binding of thrombospondin to platelets. Therefore, thrombospondin interacts with unique receptors on platelets.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Identification of a new class of inducible receptors on platelets. Thrombospondin interacts with platelets via a GPIIb-IIIa-independent mechanism. option2: Vacuolar encephalopathy of AIDS [letter]
[A]: Identification of a new class of inducible receptors on platelets. Thrombospondin interacts with platelets via a GPIIb-IIIa-independent mechanism.
[Q]: Abstract: Active forms of vitamin D3, 1 alpha-hydroxyvitamin D3 and 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3, were administered in an open-design study to 40 patients with psoriasis vulgaris in three ways: to 17 patients 1 alpha-hydroxyvitamin D3 was given orally at a dose of 1.0 micrograms/day for 6 months, to four patients 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 was given orally at a dose of 0.5 microgram/day for 6 months, and 19 patients were given 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 applied topically at concentration of 0.5 microgram/g of base for 8 weeks. Improvement was observed at the end of the individual study periods in 13 (76%) patients in Group 1 with a mean period of treatment (+/- SD) of 2.7 +/- 0.6 months, in one patient in Group 2 at 3 months after the start of treatment, and in 16 (84%) patients in Group 3 when the chemical was applied for 3.3 +/- 1.2 weeks. No side-effects were observed in any of these trials. These data suggest that psoriasis may respond to active metabolites of vitamin D3 and that abnormalities in vitamin D metabolism or in responsiveness of the skin cells to active metabolites of vitamin D may be involved in the pathogenesis of this skin disease.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: An open study of vitamin D3 treatment in psoriasis vulgaris. option2: Malignant blue nevus [letter]
[A]:
|
An open study of vitamin D3 treatment in psoriasis vulgaris.
| 5
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: Recent evidence shows tetracyclines have anticollagenolytic activity that may be clinically effective in disease treatment. This led us to use systemic tetracycline (oral tetracycline hydrochloride 1 g daily divided into 4 doses) as adjunctive therapy in treating 18 patients with persistent corneal epithelial defects. Fourteen of 18 patients healed their defects; within 48 hours (9 patients) and within two weeks (the other 5 responding patients). Two patients showed no effect and two showed disease progression.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Systemic tetracycline hydrochloride as adjunctive therapy in the treatment of persistent epithelial defects. option2: Harrington instrumentation into the lumbar spine. Technique for preservation of normal lumbar lordosis.
Output: Systemic tetracycline hydrochloride as adjunctive therapy in the treatment of persistent epithelial defects.
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: Surgical management of major venous injuries remains controversial. The medical records of 184 patients with major venous injury were reviewed. Forty-three patients had isolated venous injury; 31 of 43 patients (72%) underwent ligation to treat their vein injury. Another 141 patients had combined arterial and venous injury; 117 of these patients (83%) had ligation. Injured were the inferior vena cava, iliac, femoral, popliteal, distal leg, and arm veins; all patients underwent surgical exploration. Arterial injuries were repaired by standard techniques and venous injuries were either ligated or repaired by end-to-end or lateral phleborrhaphy. Adjunctive fasciotomy was used when clinically indicated. The patients were followed up for 1 month to 9 years. No permanent sequelae of venous ligation were identified. Transient extremity edema developed in up to 32% of patients, regardless of whether vein ligation or repair was performed. This edema resolved completely within 12 weeks of the injury. No extremity was lost after ligation of a venous injury. Although it may be ideal to repair all venous vascular injuries, selective management reflecting mechanism of injury, blood loss, anesthesia requirements, associated organ injury, and other concerns may mitigate against extensive venous repair.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Venous injury: to repair or ligate, the dilemma [published erratum appears in J Vasc Surg 1987 Apr;5(4):565] option2: Expired ipecac syrup efficacy.
Output: Venous injury: to repair or ligate, the dilemma [published erratum appears in J Vasc Surg 1987 Apr;5(4):565]
Input: Consider Input: Abstract: Recurrent pulmonary embolism from the lower extremities or pelvis, despite anticoagulation, often requires interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC). We report two patients in whom interruption of the IVC failed to ameliorate symptoms. Both patients demonstrated a previously unrecognized duplication of the IVC. We stress the importance of excluding abdominal venous anomalies prior to interrupting the IVC using surgical or percutaneous methods.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Duplication of the inferior vena cava in thromboembolic disease. option2: Pulse oximetry during cardiac catheterization in children with congenital heart disease.
|
Output: Duplication of the inferior vena cava in thromboembolic disease.
| 2
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Teacher: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Teacher: Now, understand the problem? If you are still confused, see the following example:
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Reason: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this instance: Abstract: Contrary to hindlimb muscle, extracellular calcium plays an important role in diaphragmatic strength generation (J. Appl. Physiol. 58: 2054-61, 1985). Since the inotropic effect of digitalis appears to be related to cell membrane transport of calcium, we studied the effect of digoxin on diaphragmatic contractility in 20 anesthetized dogs. The diaphragm was electrically stimulated with intramuscular electrodes. The transdiaphragmatic pressure (Pdi) during supramaximal (50 V) 2-s stimulations applied over a frequency range of 10-100 Hz was measured with balloon catheters at functional residual capacity. Cardiac output was measured with a Swan-Ganz catheter and diaphragmatic blood flow (Qdi) by timed volume collections of left inferior venous effluent. The force generated by the sartorius muscle during electrical stimulations was studied concomitantly to Pdi. In 10 dogs (group A) 0.04 mg/kg of digoxin was infused in 10 min. In 10 other dogs (group B) 0.2 mg/kg was administered. All measurements were performed during control and 30, 60, 90, and 120 min after digoxin administration. In group A, digoxin plasmatic level at 60 min reached a therapeutic range in all dogs (1.8 +/- 0.3 ng/ml), whereas in group B, digoxin plasmatic level was higher (8 +/- 1.3 ng/ml). No significant change in cardiac output and Qdi was noted after administration of digoxin, either in the dogs of group A or those of group B.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Effects of digoxin on diaphragmatic strength generation. option2: Role for angiotensin II in an overt functional proteinuria.
Student:
|
Effects of digoxin on diaphragmatic strength generation.
| 2
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Part 1. Definition
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Part 2. Example
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Answer: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Part 3. Exercise
Abstract: Nomifensine, an antidepressant used for eight years in Britain, was particularly popular in the north west of England. Haemolytic anaemia was recognised as a rare side effect, but in 1984 a cluster of six cases was referred to the North West Regional Transfusion Centre, reflecting an incidence of 0.006%. These were collected within 18 months and showed variable serological features, indicating that antibodies associated with nomifensine treatment are neither rare nor of one particular type. The accumulation of this and similar data contributed to its withdrawal from the British market in January, 1986.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Immune haemolytic anaemia and nomifensine treatment in north west England 1984-85: report of six cases. option2: Auscultatory percussion to detect ascites [letter]
Answer:
|
Immune haemolytic anaemia and nomifensine treatment in north west England 1984-85: report of six cases.
| 7
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Q: Abstract: Distribution and elimination of cefamandole 2 g iv were studied in 11 morbidly obese patients during a gastric bypass operation and again on the first postoperative day. Serum, subcutaneous adipose tissue, wound drainage, and urine were analyzed by high performance liquid chromatography for cefamandole and pharmacokinetic parameters from the intraoperative period were compared to those obtained postoperatively. Total body clearance was significantly greater (p less than 0.001) postoperatively (297 ml/min) than intraoperatively (254 ml/min). Volume changes were unpredictable but the elimination rate constant tended to increase postoperatively. Renal clearance and percentage of urinary recovery were significantly increased (p less than 0.01) postoperatively. The patients had a mean (+/- SD) volume of the central compartment of 10.3 (+/- 2.3) L, volume at steady state of 18.3 (+/- 3.9) L, and elimination rate constant of 1.67 (+/- 0.63) h-1. Tissue concentrations of cefamandole were highest during the first hour after drug administration and were less than 1 microgram/g after 3.5 hours. Mean wound drainage concentrations ranged between 10 and 12 micrograms/ml during a dosing interval and dropped to 7 micrograms/ml 12 hours after the last dose. Intraoperative dosing of cefamandole is required to maintain subcutaneous adipose tissue concentrations greater than 1 microgram/g during procedures longer than three hours in morbidly obese patients. A postoperative dose of cefamandole 2 g iv q6h will provide sustained and therapeutic concentrations in the wound drainage of morbidly obese patients.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Cefamandole distribution in serum, adipose tissue, and wound drainage in morbidly obese patients. option2: Do we monitor enough? We don't monitor enough.
A: Cefamandole distribution in serum, adipose tissue, and wound drainage in morbidly obese patients.
****
Q: Abstract: The amount and sources of T3 associated with high affinity, low capacity cellular nuclear receptors in brown adipose tissue (BAT) have been estimated by in vivo pulse-labeling techniques. Maximal binding capacity was measured by in vivo saturation analysis. Nuclear receptor occupancy at endogenous levels of T3 and T4 in euthyroid rats was estimated from the equilibrium nuclear to serum ratio of tracer T3, and the locally generated nuclear T3 to serum T4 ratio after injecting tracer T3 and T4. These ratios were multiplied, respectively, by the endogenous concentrations of T3 and T4 as measured by RIA. The maximal binding capacity was 0.65 ng T3/mg DNA, and saturation was 71%. Fifty-five percent of the nuclear T3 was generated locally, and 45% was derived from circulating T3. BAT is, hence, comparable to the liver in number of receptors (approximately 5000/cell) and to the pituitary with regard to saturation and relative contributions of locally generated T3 and plasma T3 to nuclear T3. These results suggest that BAT may be an important target for thyroid hormones and, along with other data, that alterations in the activity of the type II 5'-deiodinase of this tissue may influence the saturation of nuclear T3 receptors.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Nuclear 3,5,3'-triiodothyronine (T3) in brown adipose tissue: receptor occupancy and sources of T3 as determined by in vivo techniques. option2: Meningitis associated with serial lumbar punctures and post-hemorrhagic hydrocephalus.
A: Nuclear 3,5,3'-triiodothyronine (T3) in brown adipose tissue: receptor occupancy and sources of T3 as determined by in vivo techniques.
****
Q: Abstract: Nomifensine, an antidepressant used for eight years in Britain, was particularly popular in the north west of England. Haemolytic anaemia was recognised as a rare side effect, but in 1984 a cluster of six cases was referred to the North West Regional Transfusion Centre, reflecting an incidence of 0.006%. These were collected within 18 months and showed variable serological features, indicating that antibodies associated with nomifensine treatment are neither rare nor of one particular type. The accumulation of this and similar data contributed to its withdrawal from the British market in January, 1986.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Immune haemolytic anaemia and nomifensine treatment in north west England 1984-85: report of six cases. option2: Auscultatory percussion to detect ascites [letter]
A:
|
Immune haemolytic anaemia and nomifensine treatment in north west England 1984-85: report of six cases.
****
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example Input: Abstract: The electromagnetic spectrum consists of radiant energy that is classified according to specific wavelengths. Man is constantly exposed to a portion of the electromagnetic spectrum, particularly to radiation in the ultraviolet, visible and infrared regions. The tissues of the eye and skin are particularly sensitive to the non-ionizing wavelengths of radiant energy. Although both tissues possess endogenous protective mechanisms to minimize the effects of such exposure, problems still occur due to the absorption of radiation. The cornea, lens and retina have been shown to be susceptible to damage from light in the ultraviolet, visible and infrared range. Part I of this two-part article examines the structures of the eye that are most susceptible to light damage; part II, which will be published in the next issue of the Journal, focuses on eye protection.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: The potential damaging effects of light on the eye (Part I). option2: Increased compound 48/80 induced local histamine release from nonlesional skin of patients with chronic urticaria.
Example Output: The potential damaging effects of light on the eye (Part I).
Example Input: Abstract: It has been suggested that the risk of breast cancer is increased by oral contraceptive use before the first birth, or by use before age 25, particularly if certain formulations are used. These hypotheses were evaluated in a hospital-based case-control study. A total of 521 patients under age 45 with breast cancer were compared with 521 controls matched for age, time of interview, and geographic area. Oral contraceptive use before the first birth was reported by 155 patients and 137 controls. With allowance for confounding by multivariate analysis, the estimated relative risk was 1.0 (95% confidence interval, 0.6-1.5). The estimate was 1.0 (0.2-3.9) for any use among nulliparous women and 0.6 (0.3-1.3) for use before the first birth among parous women. Use before age 25 was reported by 145 patients and 141 controls, and the multivariate relative risk estimate was 1.0 (0.7-1.6); the results were similar when use of specific formulations was examined. For oral contraceptive use before either the first birth or age 25, the relative risk estimates were compatible with 1.0 for use of five or more years' duration or an interval since first use of at least 15 years. There was also no evidence of an increased risk in any subgroup including those at increased underlying risk because of factors such as a family history of breast cancer or a history of cystic breast disease. The findings suggest that, up to age 45, the risk of breast cancer is not influenced by the use of oral contraceptives before the first birth or before age 25 even if the use lasted for five or more years.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Breast cancer risk in relation to early oral contraceptive use. option2: Centrode patterns in the lumbar spine. Baseline studies in normal subjects.
Example Output: Breast cancer risk in relation to early oral contraceptive use.
Example Input: Abstract: Posterior fourchette lacerations are suggestive of sexual assault, and toluidine blue dye has increased the detection of these lacerations in adult rape victims. This study investigated the use of toluidine blue dye in the pediatric (0 to 10 years) and adolescent (11 to 18 years) patients to detect posterior fourchette lacerations in sexually abused and control populations. Application of toluidine blue dye increased the detection rate of posterior fourchette lacerations from 4% (1/25) to 28% (7/25) (P less than .05, Fisher exact test) in adolescent sexually abused patients and from 16.5% (4/24) to 33% (8/24) (P = .318, Fisher exact test) in pediatric sexually abused patients. Posterior fourchette lacerations occurred with the same frequency in sexually abused adolescents and sexually active controls adolescents. In the pediatric aged population, 33% of the sexually abused group had lacerations detected, whereas none of the control patients had lacerations. The presence of posterior fourchette lacerations in the pediatric aged patient is strongly suggestive of sexual abuse. Toluidine blue increases the detection of posterior fourchette lacerations in children and adolescents (P less than .001, Fisher exact test). The application of toluidine blue dye to highlight posterior fourchette lacerations is an important addition to tools already used in the evaluation of the sexually abused patient.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Toluidine blue in the detection of perineal lacerations in pediatric and adolescent sexual abuse victims. option2: New upper and lower clamps for use in anterior resection of the rectum by hand suture or stapling techniques.
Example Output:
|
Toluidine blue in the detection of perineal lacerations in pediatric and adolescent sexual abuse victims.
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
One example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution is here: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this: Abstract: The recognition of macromolecule abnormalities in various metabolic or immunologic related disease states has led to the use of plasma exchange for therapeutics. Limitations of plasma exchange, however, exist. Membrane plasma filtration provides a practical alternative. Solute removal can be made selective by the choice of operating conditions as temperature and the selection of the membrane/module design. The optimal temperature range is a function of the plasma type, solute concentrations and membrane system. Operation at below physiologic temperature (cryofiltration) is particularly suited for the removal of cold aggregative solutes, while operation at near or above physiologic temperature is more suited for the separation of solutes having large size differences at normal physiologic temperature. Membrane filtration is simple and safe to perform, is more selective than plasma exchange, does not require plasma product infusion and is more versatile than selective sorption in its applications.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Blood detoxification by membrane plasma filtration. option2: Leads from the MMWR. Tuberculosis--United States, 1985.
Solution:
|
Blood detoxification by membrane plasma filtration.
| 6
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
TASK DEFINITION: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
PROBLEM: Abstract: Rehabilitation of the patient with arthritis is a multifaceted process that should always involve patient, family, and a wide variety of healthcare professionals and community organizations. The optimal goal is to improve the patient's functional performance. Success depends on correct identification of functionally limiting problems.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Arthritis rehabilitation. A multifaceted process. option2: Testosterone enhancement of thyroid carcinoma in rats: the role of TSH.
SOLUTION: Arthritis rehabilitation. A multifaceted process.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Surgical experience with grafts of human dura mater sterilized by gamma rays and preserved in alcohol is reported in 804 cases. The method of graft preparation is a simple, cheap, and practical technique for making available a plentiful quantity of large and small pieces of dura to use for plastic reconstruction in everyday neurosurgical practice. Annual inspection for sterility and immunogenicity over an 18-year period indicates that this system of preservation is valid for an unlimited period of time.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Neurosurgical use of human dura mater sterilized by gamma rays and stored in alcohol: long-term results. option2: Parenteral estrogens for pregnancy prophylaxis [letter]
SOLUTION: Neurosurgical use of human dura mater sterilized by gamma rays and stored in alcohol: long-term results.
PROBLEM: Abstract: The recognition of macromolecule abnormalities in various metabolic or immunologic related disease states has led to the use of plasma exchange for therapeutics. Limitations of plasma exchange, however, exist. Membrane plasma filtration provides a practical alternative. Solute removal can be made selective by the choice of operating conditions as temperature and the selection of the membrane/module design. The optimal temperature range is a function of the plasma type, solute concentrations and membrane system. Operation at below physiologic temperature (cryofiltration) is particularly suited for the removal of cold aggregative solutes, while operation at near or above physiologic temperature is more suited for the separation of solutes having large size differences at normal physiologic temperature. Membrane filtration is simple and safe to perform, is more selective than plasma exchange, does not require plasma product infusion and is more versatile than selective sorption in its applications.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Blood detoxification by membrane plasma filtration. option2: Leads from the MMWR. Tuberculosis--United States, 1985.
SOLUTION:
|
Blood detoxification by membrane plasma filtration.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Q: Abstract: An emergency environmental health investigation of a mass poisoning of unknown origin is a multidiscipline effort that requires the cooperation and close communication of epidemiologists, toxicologists, and chemists. The laboratory's role in this effort is important; special instruments, knowledge, and experience are needed. Our approach to such an investigation is discussed and past cases are used as illustrations. The role of the analytical chemist is presented, and the major resources needed for these investigations are described.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: The laboratory's role in environmental health emergency investigations. option2: Selective screening device for the early detection of normal or delayed cognitive development in infants at risk for later mental retardation.
A: The laboratory's role in environmental health emergency investigations.
****
Q: Abstract: In two typical cases of calcaneal fracture dislocation, the primary fracture, which runs forward and medially from a point behind the sustentaculum tali, is associated with inversion of the hindfoot. The calcaneus splits into a small anteromedial and a larger posterolateral fragment. Rupture of the lateral collateral ligament allows the posterolateral calcaneal fragment to move laterally to lie immediately subjacent to the distal fibula. Closed reduction is impossible. Open reduction of this rare fracture dislocation is essential. A lateral approach to the calcaneus is generally sufficient, but a second medial incision may be required.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Fracture dislocation of the calcaneus. A report of two cases. option2: Safety and immunogenicity of live attenuated rhesus monkey rotavirus vaccine.
A: Fracture dislocation of the calcaneus. A report of two cases.
****
Q: Abstract: After fertilization, the protein products of the Drosophila homeobox gene caudal (cad) accumulate in a concentration gradient spanning the anteroposterior axis of the developing embryo. Mutations in the cad gene that reduce or eliminate the gradient cause abnormal zygotic expression of at least one segmentation gene (fushi tarazu) and alter the global body pattern.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: A molecular gradient in early Drosophila embryos and its role in specifying the body pattern. option2: Increased MR signal intensity in skeletal muscle adjacent to malignant tumors: pathologic correlation and clinical relevance.
A:
|
A molecular gradient in early Drosophila embryos and its role in specifying the body pattern.
****
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Teacher: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Teacher: Now, understand the problem? If you are still confused, see the following example:
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Solution: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Reason: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Now, solve this instance: Abstract: Two patients with metastatic dysgerminoma of the ovary were treated with a combination of etoposide, bleomycin, and cisplatin at The University of Texas M.D. Anderson Hospital and Tumor Institute at Houston. Both patients achieved a complete remission. Patient 1 developed a massive recurrence in the para-aortic lymph nodes 21 months after diagnosis and treatment with right salpingo-oophorectomy alone. She received four cycles of chemotherapy and is free of disease 21 months from the start of chemotherapy. Patient 2 had Stage III dysgerminoma and a lymphangiogram positive for tumor in the para-aortic lymph nodes. After surgery she received three cycles of chemotherapy and is free of disease 20 months from the start of chemotherapy. Both complete remissions were documented with second-look laparotomy. Chemotherapy may be an alternative to radiotherapy for the treatment of metastatic dysgerminoma and should also be considered for selected patients with Stage I disease. A literature review further supports the conclusion that additional clinical trials might expand the indications for chemotherapy in patients with this disease.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Chemotherapeutic complete remission in patients with metastatic ovarian dysgerminoma. Potential for cure and preservation of reproductive capacity. option2: Creativity in marketing a nutrition counseling service.
Student:
|
Chemotherapeutic complete remission in patients with metastatic ovarian dysgerminoma. Potential for cure and preservation of reproductive capacity.
| 2
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
TASK DEFINITION: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
PROBLEM: Abstract: A [99mTc]RBC study in a 63-yr-old man showed intrahepatic lesions which initially had less activity than surrounding liver tissue. When viewed 3 hr later, these had "reversed" and the lesions revealed increased uptake of the radiolabeled red cells. Some extrahepatic areas showed the same pattern (these were in the mesentery of the small bowel). The lesions proved to be angiosarcomas. Hence, the behavior of labeled red cells in these angiosarcomas mimicked that in benign hemangiomas.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Hepatic angiosarcoma: mimicking of angioma on three-phase technetium-99m red blood cell scintigraphy. option2: Is the corneal posterior cell layer truly endothelial?
SOLUTION: Hepatic angiosarcoma: mimicking of angioma on three-phase technetium-99m red blood cell scintigraphy.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Faecal metronidazole and hydroxymetronidazole concentrations measured by high pressure liquid chromatography are reported during 10 episodes of Clostridium difficile colitis in nine patients. Bactericidal faecal concentrations were present in all patients with acute disease receiving oral or intravenous metronidazole, and all responded to therapy. Metronidazole and hydroxymetronidazole concentrations fell as the diarrhoea improved and neither substance was detectable in the faeces of five patients after recovery. This demonstration of intracolonic therapeutic concentrations of metronidazole supports the clinical experience of oral metronidazole being effective in the treatment of antibiotic associated diarrhoea caused by C difficile and also suggests a potential role for intravenous metronidazole in this disease.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Faecal metronidazole concentrations during oral and intravenous therapy for antibiotic associated colitis due to Clostridium difficile. option2: Planning for the health care needs of patients with AIDS [editorial]
SOLUTION: Faecal metronidazole concentrations during oral and intravenous therapy for antibiotic associated colitis due to Clostridium difficile.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon' is an Australian hybrid plant which may cause allergic contact dermatitis. Over the past 8 years, it has been planted extensively in Australia and is now being exported to the United States and other Western countries. Recently, an explosion in incidence of contact dermatitis due to this plant has been seen. 24 patients who were suspected of being sensitive to it were patch tested to fresh plant and extracts with confirmation of sensitivity. A cross sensitivity to Toxicodendron was demonstrated clinically and on patch testing. The allergen in Toxicodendron, 3 pentadecylcatechol, is closely linked in chemical structure to 5-pentadecylresorcinol, present in Grevillea banksii and tridecylresorcinol in Grevillea robusta. Patch testing in patients sensitive to Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon' with tridecylresorcinol produced positive reactions, thus implicating the sensitizing role of long chain alkyl resorcinols in Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon' allergy. There is a likelihood that this sensitizing potential extends to other plants of the Grevillea genus, e.g., Grevillea robusta. With the spread of Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon' to other markets, this problem will become increasingly common.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Contact dermatitis from Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon'. option2: A consultant's survey of the patients in a maximum security hospital.
SOLUTION:
|
Contact dermatitis from Grevillea 'Robyn Gordon'.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given the task definition, example input & output, solve the new input case.
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Output: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
New input case for you: Abstract: Synthetic polycations have been shown to bind and neutralize glomerular polyanions (GPA), thereby increasing the permeability of the glomerular capillary wall (GCW). In the present study it is demonstrated that human platelet-derived cationic proteins (HuPlt CP), which are able to increase cutaneous vascular permeability, bind in vitro to the GCW following incubation of normal human kidney sections with purified HuPlt CP or with washed human platelets stimulated with thrombin, immune complexes (IC) and platelet-activating factor (PAF), or stimulated with a suspension of washed human platelets and polymorphonuclear leukocytes in the presence of phagocytable substrate. The antiserum used in immunofluorescence test to detect the binding of HuPlt CP was specific for two different molecular types of HuPlt CP, both with an isoelectric point (pI) of 10.5. Glomerular deposits of HuPlt CP were also detectable by immunofluorescence microscopy in renal glomeruli present in tissue obtained by biopsy from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a disease in which platelets have been implicated as mediator of glomerular injury. These data indicate that when activated platelets release HuPlt CP in vivo, these proteins bind to glomerular structures. The binding of HuPlt CP to GCW appears to be ionic in nature since heparin, a polyanion, prevents this binding in vitro. In addition, heparin, as well as a high molarity buffer, removed deposits of HuPlt CP bound in vitro to normal GCW or bound in vivo to glomeruli of patients with SLE. The binding of HuPlt CP to GCW is associated with loss of colloidal iron staining, a qualitative technique that demonstrates primarily epithelial cell surface anionic sialoglycoproteins. In experiments of in vitro binding of purified HuPlt CP to section of normal kidney treatment with heparin completely restores the normal pattern of colloidal iron staining suggesting ionic neutralization of GPA. In contrast, heparin is only partially effective in restoring colloidal iron staining in normal kidney sections treated with platelets directly stimulated with IC or PAF or in kidney sections of patients with SLE. These observations indicate that under these conditions the ionic interaction of HuPlt CP with GCW is only partially responsible for the loss of colloidal iron staining. The results of the present study suggest that biologically active polycationic mediators released from stimulated platelets localize in GCW and participate in the induction of glomerular injury.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Platelet cationic proteins are present in glomeruli of lupus nephritis patients. option2: First aid for snakebite [letter]
Output:
|
Platelet cationic proteins are present in glomeruli of lupus nephritis patients.
| 1
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given the task definition, example input & output, solve the new input case.
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example: Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Output: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
New input case for you: Abstract: A behavioural method of habit reversal, in combination with a hydrocortisone cream, was compared with the use of cream alone in the treatment of 17 patients with atopic dermatitis. The patients were assigned randomly to two groups, one of which received the combination treatment and the other regular ointment treatment. The patients' skin status was assessed before and after treatment, and the patients recorded their scratching during the study. Both groups improved, but the group which received habit-reversal therapy improved significantly more. A strong correlation was found between reduction in scratching and improvement in skin status.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Behavioural treatment of scratching in patients with atopic dermatitis. option2: Medium-depth chemical peeling of the skin: a variation of superficial chemosurgery.
Output:
|
Behavioural treatment of scratching in patients with atopic dermatitis.
| 1
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
[Q]: Abstract: The free primary amines present in the faeces of 44 infants (1-18 months) with gastroenteritis have been examined by field desorption mass spectrometry of the lactone form of their fluorescamine derivatives without their prior separation. p-Tyramine, 2-phenylethylamine, the diamines, putrescine and cadaverine and several of their acyl derivatives were common constituents, but a number of other amines were also characterised. Using thin layer chromatography and field desorption mass spectrometry of the amine dansyl derivatives a comparative study was made of the faecal amines of 13 selected infants with gastroenteritis (diarrhoea) and of 13 healthy infants. p-Tyramine, the most abundant amine, was significantly higher (p = 0.02) in the sick infants. The overall presence of p-tyramine was more significantly related to the diet of the infants. Faecal tyramine was low in breast fed infants but significantly higher (p = 0.01) in infants fed cow's milk.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Studies of the free faecal amines of infants with gastroenteritis and of healthy infants. option2: Physicians enamored of adventurous life make the great outdoors safer for all [news]
[A]: Studies of the free faecal amines of infants with gastroenteritis and of healthy infants.
[Q]: Abstract: Double-lumen endobronchial tubes were placed "blindly" in 23 patients undergoing thoracotomy. Clinical criteria suggested satisfactory positioning in all cases; however, subsequent fibreoptic bronchoscopy revealed malposition in 48%. Bronchoscopic findings included the inability to view the bronchial cuff, narrowing of the bronchial lumen of the tube at the level of the cuff and herniation of the cuff over the carina. The potential hazards associated with these findings are discussed.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Placement of double-lumen endobronchial tubes. Correlation between clinical impressions and bronchoscopic findings. option2: Where's the spot?
[A]: Placement of double-lumen endobronchial tubes. Correlation between clinical impressions and bronchoscopic findings.
[Q]: Abstract: Plasma fibronectin levels were determined in 34 children admitted with severe infectious purpura. Fibronectin concentration was decreased in severe infectious purpura as in other sepsis, but there was no significant difference between shock and nonshock patients. Fibronectin levels were lower in children with ecchymotic or necrotic purpura on admission than in those with petechial purpura; they were lower in those who developed cutaneous sequelae, but it is not known if correction of fibronectin deficiency may limit the extent of purpura and prevent the cutaneous sequelae.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Plasma fibronectin in severe infectious purpura of children. option2: A prognostic classification of cerebral cysticercosis: therapeutic implications.
[A]:
|
Plasma fibronectin in severe infectious purpura of children.
| 5
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Q: Abstract: Human decompression sickness is presumed to result from excess inert gas in the body when ambient pressure is reduced. Although the most common symptom is pain in the skeletal joints, no direct study of nitrogen exchange in this region has been undertaken. For this study, nitrogen tagged with radioactive 13N was prepared in a linear accelerator. Nine human subjects rebreathed this gas from a closed circuit for 30 min, then completed a 40- to 100-min washout period breathing room air. The isotope 13N was monitored continuously in the subject's knee during the entire period using positron detectors. After correction for isotope decay (half-life = 9.96 min), the concentration in most knees continued to rise for at least 30 min into the washout period. Various causes of this unexpected result are discussed, the most likely of which is an extensive redistribution of gas within avascular knee tissues.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Nitrogen gas exchange in the human knee. option2: Patient and house officer attitudes on physician attire and etiquette.
A: Nitrogen gas exchange in the human knee.
****
Q: Abstract: Little is known about the reflex effect on airway caliber evoked by stimulation of phrenic afferents. Therefore, in chloralose-anesthetized, paralyzed dogs, we recorded airflow, airway pressure, arterial pressure, and heart rate while electrically stimulating a phrenic nerve. Total lung resistance was calculated breath by breath. The phrenic nerve was stimulated at 3, 5, 20, 70, 140, and 200 times motor threshold and the compound action potential was recorded. Stimulation of the phrenic nerve at three and five times threshold, which activated groups I, II, and a few group III fibers, had no effect on any of the variables measured. Stimulation at 20 times threshold, which activated many group III fibers and groups I and II fibers, reflexly decreased resistance. Stimulation at 70, 140, and 200 times threshold, which activated groups I-IV fibers, evoked progressively greater decreases in lung resistance. The reflex bronchodilation evoked by phrenic nerve stimulation was unaffected by propranolol or phentolamine but was abolished by atropine. We conclude that activation of groups III and IV phrenic nerve afferents reflexly decreased total lung resistance by withdrawing cholinergic tone to airway smooth muscle.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Stimulation of groups III and IV phrenic afferents reflexly decreases total lung resistance in dogs. option2: Drug-induced cutaneous reactions. A report from the Boston Collaborative Drug Surveillance Program on 15,438 consecutive inpatients, 1975 to 1982.
A: Stimulation of groups III and IV phrenic afferents reflexly decreases total lung resistance in dogs.
****
Q: Abstract: CT scans were obtained in five patients who presented with abdominal pain and were found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm without evidence of hypovolaemia. A periaortic haematoma and evidence of a rupture was found on scanning in three of the patients and confirmed at immediate operation. A retrospective diagnosis of rapidly expanding (acute) aneurysm was made in the other two patients in whom no other pathology was found at early elective operation. CT scanning is useful in differentiating small well-controlled ruptures from rapidly expanding aneurysms.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Differentiation of ruptured aortic aneurysm from acute expansion by computerised tomography. option2: Constant velocity dynamometer: an appraisal using mechanical loading.
A:
|
Differentiation of ruptured aortic aneurysm from acute expansion by computerised tomography.
****
| 4
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Example Input: Abstract: Microcephaly and its etiology were studied in an unselected Swedish urban infant population. Virtually, all live-born infants (14,724) born between October 1977 and December 1983 in the city of Malmo, Sweden, were included in the study. Special attention was given to the role of congenital infections, particularly to cytomegalovirus infection. The infant population was studied from two points of view. One part of the study was prospective and based on regular cytomegalovirus isolation in urine within the first week of life. About 80% of the newborns were adequately studied by this test. None of 56 infants shown to be cytomegalovirus excreters (congenitally infected) and followed up were born with or developed microcephaly (head circumference smaller than 3 SD below the mean for age and sex) during the first 1 to 7 years of life. However, two of the 56 infants had a head circumference of -2 SD. In the beginning of 1985, an inventory was made of the presence of symptomatic microcephaly in the above mentioned population still living in the city or deceased there. Of about 10,000 such children, 12 were found to have symptomatic microcephaly. By studies of personal, clinical, and laboratory data and by retrospective serologic studies of frozen pre- and postconceptional maternal sera, a possible explanation or a recognized syndrome was obtained in ten of the 12 cases. In one of them, the mother had a primary cytomegalovirus infection, possibly in early pregnancy. Although the infant had symptoms compatible with a congenital infection, no laboratory evidence of transmitted infection was found. In no case were congenital rubella virus or Toxoplasma gondii infections suspected.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Microcephaly and congenital cytomegalovirus infection: a combined prospective and retrospective study of a Swedish infant population. option2: Partial splenectomy using the TA stapler.
Example Output: Microcephaly and congenital cytomegalovirus infection: a combined prospective and retrospective study of a Swedish infant population.
Example Input: Abstract: Cyclic AMP stimulates HCO3 secretion and Cl self-exchange in rabbit cortical collecting tubule. We found that varying peritubular [Cl] changed the Cl self-exchange rate with saturation kinetics (Km, 3-4 mM). HCO3 secretion also showed saturation kinetics as a function of mean luminal [Cl] (Km, 4-11 mM). Both Cl self-exchange and Cl-HCO3 exchange thus appear to be carrier-mediated. Addition/removal of basolateral HCO3 qualitatively changed Cl and HCO3 transport as expected for Cl-HCO3 exchange, but quantitatively changed Cl absorption more than HCO3 secretion. The diffusive Cl permeability and the transepithelial conductance in the presence of HCO3/CO2 and cAMP were higher than in their absence suggesting that HCO3/CO2 and cAMP together increase a conductive Cl pathway parallel to a 1:1 Cl-HCO3 exchanger. Thus, cAMP not only stimulates the overall process of anion exchange (probably by increasing an electroneutral exchanger and/or a series Cl conductance), but also stimulates a Cl conductance parallel to the exchange process.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Cyclic adenosine monophosphate-stimulated anion transport in rabbit cortical collecting duct. Kinetics, stoichiometry, and conductive pathways. option2: A prospective study of dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate, mortality, and cardiovascular disease.
Example Output: Cyclic adenosine monophosphate-stimulated anion transport in rabbit cortical collecting duct. Kinetics, stoichiometry, and conductive pathways.
Example Input: Abstract: Ex vivo renal artery surgery has been reported by several investigators and has extended the role of revascularization in the treatment of lesions previously managed by nephrectomy alone. Several techniques are available for use, and selection of the most appropriate method can be tailored to the specific anatomy being managed. Our total experience included 27 kidneys that have been managed by ex vivo renal artery reconstruction. Lesions managed in this manner include two kidneys with renal artery stenosis and renal tumors, one kidney with a congenital branch arteriovenous malformation, and 24 kidneys with branch occlusive or aneurysmal disease from fibromuscular dysplasia. Postoperative angiography was performed in 22 cases and defined successful revascularization without technical error in 20 cases. One operative death occurred as a result of myocardial infarction. One patient required reoperation to control bleeding, and two patients had temporary acute tubular necrosis during the postoperative period. Techniques employed included ex vivo repair with autotransplantation to the iliac system (six kidneys), mobilization and perfusion without transection of the renal vein (10 kidneys), and ex vivo perfusion and repair with replacement into the original renal fossa (11 kidneys). The authors believe this latter technique of reconstruction to be preferable to autotransplantation for the usual patient undergoing ex vivo repair of complex renovascular lesions.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Ex vivo renal artery reconstructions: indications and techniques. option2: Child restraint law effects on motor vehicle accident fatalities and injuries: the New Mexico experience.
Example Output:
|
Ex vivo renal artery reconstructions: indications and techniques.
| 3
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Ex Input:
Abstract: Percutaneous absorption of hydrocortisone was studied in 18 children (aged from 6 weeks to 14 1/2 years) with atopic or seborrhoeic dermatitis, by measuring their serum cortisol before and after application of 1% hydrocortisone cream. Endogenous secretion of cortisol was suppressed with dexamethasone. A 24 h absorption test was performed on nine children. In six, percutaneous absorption was detected. The highest serum cortisol level was reached within the first 6 h. A 4 h absorption test was developed on the basis of the 24 h test. This short absorption test was performed on nine children, and in eight of them absorption of hydrocortisone was detected. The rise of serum cortisol ranged from 98 to 2669 nmol/l. The 2 h ACTH test was performed to evaluate the effect of previous treatment with topical glucocorticoids. Suppressed adrenocortical function was found in five of 13 children, and was associated significantly with high post-application serum cortisol levels. This occurred more often in infants with a severe skin disorder than in older children or in those with mild or moderate skin disease.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Effect of percutaneous absorption of hydrocortisone on adrenocortical responsiveness in infants with severe skin disease. option2: Technetium antimony sulfur colloid scintiscan in selective lymph node dissection for malignant melanoma.
Ex Output:
Effect of percutaneous absorption of hydrocortisone on adrenocortical responsiveness in infants with severe skin disease.
Ex Input:
Abstract: Virus-associated hemophagocytic syndrome has been recently identified as a benign, reactive histiocytic proliferation distinct from Rappaport's malignant hystiocytosis. Other etiologic agents, including different bacteria, have also been identified. Three autopsy cases of hemophagocytic syndrome associated to acute tuberculous sepsis are presented. Benign histiocytic proliferation with striking hemophagocytosis was present in a disseminated, multisystemic pattern in all three cases. A relationship between systemic histiocytic proliferation and an anergic status in these patients is suggested.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Tuberculosis-associated hemophagocytic syndrome. A systemic process. option2: Stressing the postural response. A quantitative method for testing balance.
Ex Output:
Tuberculosis-associated hemophagocytic syndrome. A systemic process.
Ex Input:
Abstract: Health-risk appraisals (HRAs) are self-scored questionnaires or computer programs that use demographic and risk-factor data to estimate the most likely causes of death and to provide guidance on how to reduce risk of death. The clinical usefulness of HRAs lies in their ability to motivate patients to modify negative habits and lifestyles. Still very much in a developmental stage, HRAs are not substitutes for preventive health examinations and are best used in conjunction with ongoing physician-supervised health-promotion and disease-prevention efforts.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Health-risk appraisal. Helping patients predict and prevent health problems. option2: Graves' disease and thyroid cancer.
Ex Output:
|
Health-risk appraisal. Helping patients predict and prevent health problems.
| 1
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
TASK DEFINITION: Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
PROBLEM: Abstract: Free osteocutaneous fibular grafts, revascularised by microvascular anastomoses, have been used for one-stage reconstruction of extensive bone and skin loss in the lower leg in seven patients. The addition of an integral skin flap to a vascularised fibular graft makes reconstruction of bone defects with significant skin loss possible, and the technique for designing and raising such a flap is presented. The advantages of this transfer over other microvascular osteocutaneous flaps are the available length of straight cortical bone, the large thin skin flap, the good diameter of the vascular pedicle and the fact that dissection is carried out under a tourniquet.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: The osteocutaneous free fibular graft. option2: Magnetic resonance imaging of the fetal temporal bone.
SOLUTION: The osteocutaneous free fibular graft.
PROBLEM: Abstract: Rehabilitation of the patient with arthritis is a multifaceted process that should always involve patient, family, and a wide variety of healthcare professionals and community organizations. The optimal goal is to improve the patient's functional performance. Success depends on correct identification of functionally limiting problems.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Arthritis rehabilitation. A multifaceted process. option2: Testosterone enhancement of thyroid carcinoma in rats: the role of TSH.
SOLUTION: Arthritis rehabilitation. A multifaceted process.
PROBLEM: Abstract: The murine IgG2a monoclonal antibody 6-19 binds to a wide variety of nonhematopoietic cells including human marrow-derived stromal cells but does not bind to marrow or peripheral blood cells. We studied the effects of this antibody and rabbit complement on marrow cells. Fibroblast colonies were eliminated from light density marrow cells by a single incubation with monoclonal antibody 6-19 and complement. The growth and composition of granulocytic and erythroid colonies were unaffected. Specific complement mediated cytotoxicity of the antibody was confirmed on passaged human fibroblasts derived from marrow (more than 99.6% of fibroblasts are killed by a single treatment). Similar results were obtained with human umbilical cord endothelial cells. In addition, such treatment abolished the initiation of Dexter culture stroma. Incubation of bone marrow cell suspensions with this antibody and complement will allow the study of stroma-free marrow cells in long-term liquid cultures.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Lysis of human fibroblast colony-forming cells and endothelial cells by monoclonal antibody (6-19) and complement. option2: Mechanism of cardiac arrhythmias induced by epinephrine in dogs with hypokalemia.
SOLUTION:
|
Lysis of human fibroblast colony-forming cells and endothelial cells by monoclonal antibody (6-19) and complement.
| 8
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
Part 1. Definition
Given an abstract, indicate which of the provided candidate titles (Option1 and Option2) best describes it (respond with the text of the title, not option1/2).
Part 2. Example
Abstract: Some patients converted from ventricular fibrillation to organized rhythms by defibrillation-trained ambulance technicians (EMT-Ds) will refibrillate before hospital arrival. The authors analyzed 271 cases of ventricular fibrillation managed by EMT-Ds working without paramedic back-up. Of 111 patients initially converted to organized rhythms, 19 (17%) refibrillated, 11 (58%) of whom were reconverted to perfusing rhythms, including nine of 11 (82%) who had spontaneous pulses prior to refibrillation. Among patients initially converted to organized rhythms, hospital admission rates were lower for patients who refibrillated than for patients who did not(53% versus 76%, P = NS), although discharge rates were virtually identical (37% and 35%, respectively). Scene-to-hospital transport times were not predictively associated with either the frequency of refibrillation or patient outcome. Defibrillation-trained EMTs can effectively manage refibrillation with additional shocks and are not at a significant disadvantage when paramedic back-up is not available.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds option2: Maintenance of compliance in a small diameter arterial prosthesis.
Answer: Refibrillation managed by EMT-Ds
Explanation: The abstract is about refibrillation and it is also mentioned in the abstract that it is managed by EMT-Ds. So it is an apt title.
Part 3. Exercise
Abstract: Pulmonary edema due to upper airway obstruction can be observed in a variety of clinical situations. The predominant mechanism is increased negative intrathoracic pressure, although hypoxia and cardiac and neurologic factors may contribute. Laryngospasm associated with intubation and general anesthesia is a common cause of pulmonary edema in children. However, only seven cases of pulmonary edema presumably due to laryngospasm have been reported in adolescents and adults. Five of the seven had other risk factors for upper airway obstruction, and in four, the diagnosis of "laryngospasm" could be explained by other factors. Patients with underlying risk factors for upper airway obstruction, such as a forme fruste of sleep apnea or nasopharyngeal abnormalities, appear to be at increased risk for the development of pulmonary edema in the setting of intubation and anesthesia. This form of pulmonary edema usually resolves rapidly without the need for aggressive therapy or invasive monitoring.
Which is the apt title for the abstract? option1: Post-extubation pulmonary edema following anesthesia induced by upper airway obstruction. Are certain patients at increased risk? option2: Visual evoked potentials in parkinsonism and dopamine blockade reveal a stimulus-dependent dopamine function in humans.
Answer:
|
Post-extubation pulmonary edema following anesthesia induced by upper airway obstruction. Are certain patients at increased risk?
| 7
|
NIv2
|
task624_ohsumed_question_answering
|
fs_opt
|
End of preview. Expand
in Data Studio
README.md exists but content is empty.
- Downloads last month
- 6